IRR and multiple of invested capital (MOIC)
The internal rate of return (IRR) is the discount rate that sets the present value of all cash flows to zero, so it rewards good timing. The multiple of invested capital (MOIC) divides realized plus unrealized value by invested capital. It is easy to read but ignores how long the money took.
Before this: Why alternative investment performance is hard to judge, Returns of Financial Assets
On the exam
- Describe the performance appraisal of alternative investments
- Calculate and interpret alternative investment returns both before and after fees
Calculate and interpret MOIC and describe IRR's role. Expect a MOIC calculation (watch what counts as invested capital), a cash flow IRR on your calculator, and a concept item on which measure ignores timing.
How deeply to learn each part
- Know the idea
- Understand it in general. It frames other topics, but you will not calculate with it.
- Use it
- Understand it well enough to solve a question with it. Recognize when it applies.
- Memorize
- Learn it by heart. The exam will not give it to you.
You know this one. The full lesson is folded away. The takeaways, formulas and checkpoint below are your quick refresher, and the checkpoint is a fair test of whether you still do.
You tested strong here. The full lesson is folded away. The takeaways, formulas and checkpoint below are your quick refresher, and the checkpoint is a fair test of whether you still know it.
Which return measure do private equity and real estate use?
Private equity and real estate funds draw capital over several years and pay it out at irregular dates, so a single period return does not describe them. Two measures are standard. The internal rate of return (IRR) uses every cash flow and its date. The multiple of invested capital (MOIC) is a quick shortcut that ignores dates.
- Internal rate of return (IRR) Memorize the preferred measure
- Considers timing of cash flows Memorize rewards or penalizes the manager for timing decisions
- Harder to calculate Memorize needs a financial calculator
- Needs assumptions Memorize a financing rate for outflows and a reinvestment rate for inflows
-
- Multiple of invested capital (MOIC) Memorize a shortcut also called the money multiple
- Easy to calculate and explain Memorize "we got 2× our money"
- Ignores timing Memorize 2× in 2 years is not 2× in 15 years
-
How do you calculate the IRR of a deal?
The IRR is the discount rate that sets the present value of all the cash flows to zero. It is the same idea as the money-weighted return from the rates and returns module, and the same as the capital budgeting IRR in Corporate Issuers.
The manager decides when to call capital and when to return it. The timing of cash flows is therefore part of the manager’s skill, and IRR is the yardstick that rewards or penalizes it.
IRR assumes outflows are financed at some rate (often a weighted average cost of capital) and inflows are reinvested at some rate, which may or may not be earned in practice. Those assumptions affect the answer.
How do you calculate MOIC?
MOIC, also called the money multiple, divides everything the investment is worth by the money put in. The realized value is cash already received from exits and distributions. The unrealized value is the estimated worth of what is still held.
The denominator is invested capital : the paid-in capital less management fees and fund expenses, so only the money that actually went into investments.
A fund has invested USD 450 million. It has received USD 270 million from exits, and its remaining holdings are valued at USD 585 million. The MOIC is closest to:
(270 + 585) ÷ 450 = 1.9×
MOIC (multiple, ×)1.9
- 270+585=÷450=1.9
- 270ENTER585+450÷1.9
ENTER enter (on the HP, puts the number on the stack)
MOIC is easy to calculate and easy to say: investors like to hear that they received two or three times their money. But it says nothing about how long that took.
Why does the time frame matter?
A multiple on its own can hide a very different yearly return. If a single investment returns a multiple after years with nothing paid out in between, the equivalent yearly return is .
A fund returns 2× its single investment in one lump sum after 5 years. The equivalent yearly return is closest to:
2^(1 ÷ 5) − 1 = 14.87%
Equivalent yearly return, r14.87%
- 2y^x(1÷5)=−1=0.1487
y^x power
- 2ENTER51/xy^x1−0.1487
ENTER enter (on the HP, puts the number on the stack) · 1/x reciprocal · y^x power
Try this 0 of 3
- Delay the exit by a year and compare both measures
- Push the IRR above 16% without changing any amount
- Mark the last inflow as a valuation, not a sale
Selected cash flow
Drag an arrow along the axis, or select it and use Earlier and Later. Years are along the bottom; amounts are USD millions.
The worked example: 1.80× the money back, 13.52% a year.
Show working
IRR: solve −40.00 − 10.00 ÷ (1 + IRR) + 15.00 ÷ (1 + IRR)^4 + 75.00 ÷ (1 + IRR)^5 = 0 → IRR = 13.52%
- CF2NDCLR WORKopen the cash flow worksheet and clear it
- 40+|-ENTER↓CF0 = −40
- 10+|-ENTER↓C01 = −10
- ↓0ENTER↓2ENTERC02 = 0, F02 = 2 (years in a row)
- ↓15ENTER↓C03 = 15
- ↓75ENTER↓C04 = 75
- IRRCPT13.52
CF cash flow worksheet · 2ND second function (the shifted label above a key) · CLR WORK clear the worksheet · +|- change sign · ENTER enter (on the HP, puts the number on the stack) · IRR internal rate of return · CPT compute
- fCLEAR REGclear the cash flow registers
- 40CHSgCF0t = 0
- 10CHSgCFj−10
- 0gCFj2gNj0, 2 years in a row
- 15gCFj15
- 75gCFj75
- fIRR13.52
f gold shift key · CLEAR REG clear all registers · CHS change sign · g blue shift key · CF0 cash flow at time zero · CFj cash flow j · Nj times cash flow j repeats · IRR internal rate of return
MOIC = (realized + unrealized value) ÷ invested capital = (15 + 75) ÷ (40 + 10) = 90.00 ÷ 50.00 = 1.80×
- 15+75=÷(40+10)=1.8000
- 15ENTER75+40ENTER10+÷1.8000
ENTER enter (on the HP, puts the number on the stack)
MOIC has no time in it: the same 1.80× over a longer life means a lower annual return. For comparison, 2.0× in 5 years is 2^(1/5) − 1 = 14.9% a year; in 10 years it is 7.2% a year.
The same logic shows up inside one deal. If the sale proceeds of 75 in the first example arrive in year 6 instead of year 5, the cash flows are −40, −10, 0, 0, +15, 0 and +75. MOIC stays at 1.80×, but the IRR falls from 13.52% to 11.40%. MOIC counts the money; IRR also counts the years.
Exam tip When a question gives a multiple and a holding period, convert before comparing. When it gives uneven cash flows, use the cash flow worksheet.
Go deeper Limits of IRR
IRR depends on the reinvestment and financing assumptions described above, and a set of cash flows that changes sign more than once can have more than one IRR. These issues are covered with capital budgeting in Corporate Issuers. For this module, remember the contrast: IRR counts timing but is harder to calculate and needs assumptions; MOIC is simple but blind to time.
Go deeper Why the middle of a fund's life is hard to read
After a private equity fund has called all its commitments, interim accounting values matter less for a while because no cash moves on them. Values may then sit near cost with only small adjustments until an impairment or a sale. The unrealized part of MOIC therefore rests on Level 3 estimates, so treat an interim MOIC with caution.
Memorize this
MemorizeIRR versus MOIC
| IRR | MOIC | |
|---|---|---|
| Timing of cash flows | counted | ignored |
| Effort | calculator or solver | one division |
| Assumptions | financing and reinvestment rates | none |
| Use | preferred measure | shortcut for private equity and real estate |
Memory hook MOIC counts the money; IRR also counts the years.
Know it cold , with invested capital = paid-in capital − fees and expenses.
MemorizeA multiple needs a time frame
Memory hook Same 2.0×: five years is about 15% a year, ten years is about 7% a year. Double the time and the yearly rate roughly halves.
Know it cold Single outflow and single inflow: .
- Internal rate of return (IRR) Memorize the preferred measure
- Considers timing of cash flows Memorize rewards or penalizes the manager for timing decisions
- Harder to calculate Memorize needs a financial calculator
- Needs assumptions Memorize a financing rate for outflows and a reinvestment rate for inflows
-
- Multiple of invested capital (MOIC) Memorize a shortcut also called the money multiple
- Easy to calculate and explain Memorize "we got 2× our money"
- Ignores timing Memorize 2× in 2 years is not 2× in 15 years
-
Quick example
Cash flows of −100, +30, +40 and +90 at years 0 to 3. The rate that sets the present value to zero is 22.56%.
- CF2NDCLR WORK
- 100+|-ENTER↓
- 30ENTER↓↓
- 40ENTER↓↓
- 90ENTER
- IRRCPT 22.56
CF cash flow worksheet · 2ND second function (the shifted label above a key) · CLR WORK clear the worksheet · +|- change sign · ENTER enter (on the HP, puts the number on the stack) · IRR internal rate of return · CPT compute
- fCLEAR REG
- 100CHSgCF0
- 30gCFj
- 40gCFj
- 90gCFj
- fIRR 22.56
f gold shift key · CLEAR REG clear all registers · CHS change sign · g blue shift key · CF0 cash flow at time zero · CFj cash flow j · IRR internal rate of return
Quick example
Invested capital 36, realized value 20, remaining holdings valued at 61. (20 + 61) ÷ 36 = 2.25×.
- 20+61=÷36= 2.25
- 20ENTER61+36÷ 2.25
ENTER enter (on the HP, puts the number on the stack)
Quick example
Investors have paid in 320 and fees and expenses took 24. Invested capital is 320 − 24 = 296.
- 320−24= 296
- 320ENTER24− 296
ENTER enter (on the HP, puts the number on the stack)
Quick example
A single investment returns 3.0× its cost after 8 years. 3^(1/8) − 1 = 14.72% a year.
- 3y^x(1÷8)=−1= 0.1472
y^x power
- 3ENTER81/xy^x1− 0.1472
ENTER enter (on the HP, puts the number on the stack) · 1/x reciprocal · y^x power
How it is asked
-
MOIC with a follow-on investment
A fund invests 3.6 and later 0.9 more, then exits for 9.9. MOIC?
9.9 ÷ (3.6 + 0.9) = 2.20×. Traps: 2.75× (ignores the follow-on) and 11.00× (divides by the follow-on only).
-
Which measure ignores timing
Which measure ignores the timing of cash flows: IRR, MOIC or the money-weighted return?
MOIC. IRR and the money-weighted return are the same idea and both use timing.
-
Same multiple, different holding period
Two funds both return 2.5×, one over 3 years, one over 7. Compared with the 7-year fund, the 3-year fund's IRR is...
Higher. The same multiple earned faster means a higher yearly rate.
-
What counts as invested capital
Paid-in 350, fees and expenses 35, realized 190, unrealized 405. MOIC?
(190 + 405) ÷ (350 − 35) = 1.89×. Traps: 1.70× (divides by paid-in) and 0.60× (leaves out unrealized).
Exam traps
- Leaving unrealized value out of the MOIC numerator. Remaining holdings count.
- Saying MOIC accounts for timing. It does not; IRR does.
- Dividing by committed capital, or by paid-in capital, rather than invested capital (paid-in less fees and expenses).
- Forgetting a follow-on investment in the denominator.
Checkpoint
6 exam-style questions. About 90 seconds each.
1A fund invests INR 2.5 billion and later another INR 0.5 billion in a company, and exits for INR 7.2 billion. The MOIC is closest to:
2Which of the following performance measures ignores the timing of cash flows?
3Two funds both return 1.8× invested capital, one over 4 years and one over 9 years. Compared with the 9-year fund, the 4-year fund's IRR is most likely:
4Investors in a private equity fund have paid in USD 400 million. Fees and expenses took USD 40 million. The fund has distributed USD 300 million and its remaining holdings are valued at USD 480 million. The MOIC is closest to:
5A fund's cash flows, in USD millions, are −100 at year 0, −20 at year 1, 0 at year 2, +60 at year 3 and +110 at year 4. The IRR is closest to:
6Which statement about IRR as a measure for long-lived alternative investments is most accurate?
Key takeaways
- IRR is the money-weighted return: the discount rate that sets the present value of all cash flows to zero. It rewards timing.
- MOIC = (realized + unrealized) ÷ invested capital. It has no time dimension.
- Invested capital is paid-in capital less fees and expenses.
- Always ask how long a multiple took: the same multiple earned sooner means a higher IRR.
Quick example
Cash flows of −100, +30, +40 and +90 at years 0 to 3. The rate that sets the present value to zero is 22.56%.
- CF2NDCLR WORK
- 100+|-ENTER↓
- 30ENTER↓↓
- 40ENTER↓↓
- 90ENTER
- IRRCPT 22.56
CF cash flow worksheet · 2ND second function (the shifted label above a key) · CLR WORK clear the worksheet · +|- change sign · ENTER enter (on the HP, puts the number on the stack) · IRR internal rate of return · CPT compute
- fCLEAR REG
- 100CHSgCF0
- 30gCFj
- 40gCFj
- 90gCFj
- fIRR 22.56
f gold shift key · CLEAR REG clear all registers · CHS change sign · g blue shift key · CF0 cash flow at time zero · CFj cash flow j · IRR internal rate of return
Quick example
Invested capital 36, realized value 20, remaining holdings valued at 61. (20 + 61) ÷ 36 = 2.25×.
- 20+61=÷36= 2.25
- 20ENTER61+36÷ 2.25
ENTER enter (on the HP, puts the number on the stack)
Quick example
Investors have paid in 320 and fees and expenses took 24. Invested capital is 320 − 24 = 296.
- 320−24= 296
- 320ENTER24− 296
ENTER enter (on the HP, puts the number on the stack)
Quick example
A single investment returns 3.0× its cost after 8 years. 3^(1/8) − 1 = 14.72% a year.
- 3y^x(1÷8)=−1= 0.1472
y^x power
- 3ENTER81/xy^x1− 0.1472
ENTER enter (on the HP, puts the number on the stack) · 1/x reciprocal · y^x power
All Alternative Investments formulas, every lesson
Practice exam-style questions on Alternative Investment Performance and Returns
Questions about this lesson?
Where this comes back
- Private Capital: Private Equity and Private Debt Alternative Investments
- Capital Investments and Capital Allocation Corporate Finance
Questions candidates ask
How do you calculate MOIC?
Add the value already realized and the value of the remaining holdings, then divide by invested capital, which is paid-in capital less fees and expenses. With 90 realized, nothing left and 50 invested, the MOIC is 90 ÷ 50 = 1.80×.
What is the difference between IRR and MOIC?
IRR is the discount rate that sets the present value of all cash flows to zero, so it uses their timing. MOIC divides total value by invested capital and ignores timing, so a 2× result in 3 years and in 15 years look the same.
Why do private equity funds use IRR?
The manager decides when capital is called and when proceeds are returned, so timing is part of the result. IRR rewards or penalizes those timing decisions, which MOIC cannot do.
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