Analyst Dojo
Lesson 6 of 7 11–14% of the exam

Model construction by company life cycle: from venture to decline

Match the model to the company. A start-up is valued on future sales: revenue × price-to-sales (P/S) ÷ the investor's target return. A growth firm on forecast earnings × price-to-earnings (P/E). A mature firm on stable cash flows. A declining firm by weighting going-concern and distress values by their probabilities.

7 min cram, 32 min full read. Based on the 2027 CFA® Program Level I curriculum, Equities, Learning Module 8.

Tailor this to you: take the self-assessment

Before this: Scenario analysis with probability weights

On the exam

  • Evaluate the construction of an equity valuation model based on characteristics of the subject company

Evaluate how a valuation model should be built for a company's characteristics. Expect: a venture capital (VC) value from future revenue, a P/S multiple and a target return on investment (ROI); the internal rate of return (IRR) behind an ROI; pre-money and post-money valuation and the new investor's stake; a growth-phase value from an earnings multiple; a value with a probability of distress; and what changes with shareholder control.

How deeply to learn each part
Know the idea
Understand it in general. It frames other topics, but you will not calculate with it.
Use it
Understand it well enough to solve a question with it. Recognize when it applies.
Memorize
Learn it by heart. The exam will not give it to you.

You know this one. The full lesson is folded away. The takeaways, formulas and checkpoint below are your quick refresher, and the checkpoint is a fair test of whether you still do.

You tested strong here. The full lesson is folded away. The takeaways, formulas and checkpoint below are your quick refresher, and the checkpoint is a fair test of whether you still know it.

Cram mode: the one-screen version of this lesson. Switch to Full for the explanations, worked examples and interactives.

What changes with the company’s characteristics?

Three things shape the model. The first is the company’s development stage . The second is data availability , meaning how much financial history exists and how good it is. The third is the analyst perspective : a new private investor, a minority shareholder or a controlling owner each looks at the company differently.

Four building blocks get adjusted: the cash flow forecast (the numerator), the discount rate (the denominator), the forecast horizon and the choice of terminal value. The generic form uses the required return r.

Value from cash flows and a terminal value Know the idea
IVt=∑i=1nE(CFt+i)(1+r)i+E(Pt+n)(1+r)nIV_t = \sum_{i=1}^{n} \frac{E(CF_{t+i})}{(1 + r)^i} + \frac{E(P_{t+n})}{(1 + r)^n}

The models in earlier modules, except the two-stage model, quietly assume a mature company. The areas of valuation focus move as a company ages, and the company life cycle stages vary widely in length.

Valuation focus by life-cycle stage
Company life cyclestages vary widely in length
  • Start-up Memorize metric: sales · driver: market potential · history: little or none
    • Terminal value P/S × revenue at the horizon
  • Growth Memorize metric: cash flow to fund high growth · driver: sustainable growth and margins · history: limited
    • Terminal value P/E × earnings at the horizon
  • Mature Memorize metric: earnings and cash flow for stable growth · driver: sustainable profits · history: long
    • Terminal value constant growth or peer multiple
  • Decline Memorize metric: cash flow to return capital · driver: long-run margins after decline · history: long
    • Terminal value weight going concern against distress

How do you value a start-up?

Use it

Start-ups often have little or no revenue, negative cash flow, no operating history and a high chance of failure, so existing statements say little. Their value is future potential. A start-up valuation skips the near-term cash flows and focuses on the terminal value: expected revenue at the end of the horizon times a price-to-sales (P/S) terminal value multiple taken from later-stage peers, discounted at the investor’s target return.

Venture capital method Use it
IVt=Expected revenuet+n×P/S(1+r)n=Expected revenuet+n×P/SROIIV_t = \frac{\text{Expected revenue}_{t+n} \times P/S}{(1 + r)^n} = \frac{\text{Expected revenue}_{t+n} \times P/S}{ROI}

The return on investment (ROI) here is the multiple of the original investment that comes back, with no cash flows in between. It relates to the internal rate of return (IRR) through the number of years.

ROI and IRR Use it
ROI=(1+IRR)nROI = (1 + IRR)^n

To attract investors to such risky ventures, start-ups often must offer returns of more than 10 times the investment over five years or more. Venture capital (VC) is the small, sometimes controlling, equity stake such investors take to fund the next stage.

The value the formula gives is the company’s value after the new money: the post-money valuation . Subtract the new equity to get the pre-money valuation , and divide the new equity by the post-money value to get the new investor’s fractional ownership .

Pre-money valuation Memorize
Pre-money=Post-money−New equity\text{Pre-money} = \text{Post-money} - \text{New equity}
Fractional ownership Memorize
Fractional ownership=New equityPost-money\text{Fractional ownership} = \frac{\text{New equity}}{\text{Post-money}}
Rearrange itVenture capital method: solve for any one
The question asks for
A start-up is expected to reach revenue of 60.00 at the end of its horizon. Comparable later-stage companies trade at 2.5 times sales, and a venture capital (VC) fund targets a return of 12 times its investment. The post-money valuation today is closest to:

60.00 × 2.5 ÷ 12 = 12.50

Post-money valuation today12.50

On your calculator
  1. 60×2.5÷12=12.5
  1. 60ENTER2.5×12÷12.5

ENTER enter (on the HP, puts the number on the stack)

Rearrange itPre-money value and ownership: solve for any one
The question asks for
A venture capital fund invests 4.00 in a start-up, giving a post-money valuation of 12.50. The pre-money valuation is closest to:

12.50 − 4.00 = 8.50

Pre-money valuation8.50

On your calculator
  1. 12.5−4=8.5
  1. 12.5ENTER4−8.5

ENTER enter (on the HP, puts the number on the stack)

Exam tip The VC formula gives post-money value. Subtract the new money for pre-money; divide the new money by post-money for the stake.

How do you value a growth company?

Use it

Growth firms have a proven product and revenue (sometimes earnings) and raise new equity to grow assets and sales fast, aiming at sustainable profitability over a set horizon. Value drivers are detailed revenue and profit projections, and earnings are retained and reinvested.

A growth-phase valuation targets the investor’s return through a terminal multiple, as a start-up does, but on earnings (the P/E of mature peers), not sales. That is the earnings multiple terminal value . Unlike a start-up, the company’s own statements are a usable base, and forecasting each line at its own growth rate beats a simple two-stage model.

Growth-phase value from an earnings multiple Use it
IVt=Net incomet+n×P/EROIIV_t = \frac{\text{Net income}_{t+n} \times P/E}{ROI}
Go deeper Two-stage model or growth-phase model?

The two-stage model grows one cash flow fast and then slowly. The growth-phase model forecasts revenue, costs and assets separately, so margins can expand. Calderon’s pre-tax margin rises from 5% to about 30%, something a single cash flow growth rate cannot show.

How do you value a firm in decline?

Decline comes from competition, changing tastes, technology or poor management: falling sales and share, lower profits and a higher chance of financial distress , the inability to meet future obligations to debtholders. Firms in decline can end in a sale, a restructuring under new management or liquidation. If asset sales do not cover the debt, shareholders lose everything.

Long histories do not help much, because extending the old relationships misses the distress.

What to adjust for a firm in decline
Valuation of a firm in decline
  • Cash flows Know the idea customers and suppliers leave, assets are impaired; timing uncertain
  • Discount rate Know the idea cost of debt jumps with default risk; required return on equity becomes unstable
  • Terminal value and horizon Know the idea a going concern is no longer certain; healthy peers' multiples distort
  • Cash flow adjustments : customers and suppliers leave and assets are impaired, so the timing of cash flows is uncertain.
  • Denominator issues : the cost of debt jumps with default risk and the required return on equity becomes unstable.
  • Terminal value and horizon issues : a going concern is no longer certain, and the multiples of healthy peers distort the value.

The better route is to make the probability of distress explicit. Weight the going-concern value and the distress sale value by their probabilities. Discount a future distress sale value to today first. It works for any company with a real chance of failure, not only declining ones.

Value with a probability of distress Memorize
IVt=Going-concern value×(1−pdistress)+Distress sale value×pdistressIV_t = \text{Going-concern value} \times (1 - p_{distress}) + \text{Distress sale value} \times p_{distress}
Rearrange itValue with a probability of distress: solve for any one
The question asks for
If a company is forced into a distress sale, its assets would fetch 90.00 in 2 years. The required return is 12.00%. The distress sale value today is closest to:

90.00 ÷ 1.12^2 = 71.75

Distress sale value today71.75

On your calculator
  1. 1.12y^x2=1/x×90=71.7474

y^x power · 1/x reciprocal

  1. 90ENTER1.12ENTER2y^x÷71.7474

ENTER enter (on the HP, puts the number on the stack) · y^x power

Exam tip For distress risk, do not just raise the discount rate or borrow healthy peers’ multiples: weight the two outcomes.

InteractiveStart-up: the venture capital method

Try this 0 of 3

  • Start-up: find the ROI that gives a 5-year IRR of 50%
  • New money: make the investor own more than half
  • Distress: raise the probability until value is 20% or more below the going-concern value

Orbisense, USD million. Price-to-sales (P/S); return on investment (ROI), the multiple of its money the investor targets; internal rate of return (IRR).

Post-money value todayUSD 12.50m
Implied IRR64.38%
Trap: not discounted150.00

The formula gives the value after the new money (post-money). Near-term cash flows are skipped: a start-up's value is its potential at the horizon.

Show working

Value at the horizon = 60 × 2.5 = 150.00. Post-money = 150.00 ÷ 12.00 = 12.50.

ROI = (1 + IRR)n: IRR = 12^(1/5) − 1 = 64.38%. Check: 150.00 ÷ 1.64385 = 12.50.

Post-money value and IRR on your calculator
  1. 60×2.5÷12=post-money 12.5
  2. 12y^x0.2−1=IRR 0.6438

y^x power

  1. 60ENTER2.5×12÷post-money 12.5
  2. 12ENTER0.2y^x1−IRR 0.6438

ENTER enter (on the HP, puts the number on the stack) · y^x power

Same idea at every stage: forecast what you can, value the end point, discount at the return investors demand, and weight what might go wrong.
Go deeper Why ROI and IRR are the same target

An ROI of 12 times over five years and an IRR of 64.38% a year describe one hurdle. Dividing by the ROI is discounting at the IRR.

Does it matter who controls the shares?

A financial investor holds a non-controlling stake and has no influence on operations, so the analyst values the company as its current management runs it.

A strategic investor and an activist investor may hold a significant minority or a majority and push for change through board seats, a shareholder vote or taking the company private: asset sales, combinations, cost cuts or a restructuring.

Who holds the shares
Shareholder typecontrol changes how the company is run
  • Financial investor Use it no influence: value as currently run
  • Strategic investor Use it control to combine or reshape
  • Activist investor Use it minority or majority stake; pushes a plan: model it as a scenario

When an activist sets out its plan to shareholders, the analyst can translate it into an operating, investing and financing forecast and value it as a scenario in which the plan succeeds. Lesson 5 shows how to weight a scenario. The shareholder voting process is covered in Learning Module 2.

Memorize this

MemorizeValuation focus by stage

StageMetricValue driverTerminal valueHistory
Start-upsalesmarket potentialP/S × horizon revenue ÷ ROIlittle or none
Growthcash flow for high growthsustainable growth and marginsP/E × horizon earnings ÷ ROIlimited
Matureearnings and cash flow for stable growthsustainable profitsconstant growth or peer multiplelong
Declinecash flow to return capitallong-run margins after declinegoing concern vs distress, weightedlong

Memory hook Sales, then earnings, then steady cash, then survival.

Know it cold Start-up value is post-money. Pre-money = post-money − new equity; stake = new equity ÷ post-money. ROI = (1 + IRR)^n.

MemorizeDistress and control

Memory hook Weight it, do not bend the rate.

Know it cold Value = going-concern value × (1 − p) + distress sale value × p, with the sale value discounted to today. Financial investor: value as run; activist with a plan: value the plan as a scenario.

Valuation focus by life-cycle stage
Company life cyclestages vary widely in length
  • Start-up Memorize metric: sales · driver: market potential · history: little or none
    • Terminal value P/S × revenue at the horizon
  • Growth Memorize metric: cash flow to fund high growth · driver: sustainable growth and margins · history: limited
    • Terminal value P/E × earnings at the horizon
  • Mature Memorize metric: earnings and cash flow for stable growth · driver: sustainable profits · history: long
    • Terminal value constant growth or peer multiple
  • Decline Memorize metric: cash flow to return capital · driver: long-run margins after decline · history: long
    • Terminal value weight going concern against distress
What to adjust for a firm in decline
Valuation of a firm in decline
  • Cash flows Know the idea customers and suppliers leave, assets are impaired; timing uncertain
  • Discount rate Know the idea cost of debt jumps with default risk; required return on equity becomes unstable
  • Terminal value and horizon Know the idea a going concern is no longer certain; healthy peers' multiples distort
Who holds the shares
Shareholder typecontrol changes how the company is run
  • Financial investor Use it no influence: value as currently run
  • Strategic investor Use it control to combine or reshape
  • Activist investor Use it minority or majority stake; pushes a plan: model it as a scenario
Value from cash flows and a terminal value Know the idea
IVt=∑i=1nE(CFt+i)(1+r)i+E(Pt+n)(1+r)nIV_t = \sum_{i=1}^{n} \frac{E(CF_{t+i})}{(1 + r)^i} + \frac{E(P_{t+n})}{(1 + r)^n}
Quick example

Expected cash flows of 10 and 12, a terminal value of 200 at the end of year 2, required return 12%. 10 ÷ 1.12 + (12 + 200) ÷ 1.12² = 177.93.

On your calculator
  1. 212÷1.2544=STO1 169.01
  2. 10÷1.12+RCL1= 177.93

STO store · RCL recall a stored number

  1. 212ENTER1.2544÷ 169.01
  2. 10ENTER1.12÷+ 177.93

ENTER enter (on the HP, puts the number on the stack)

Venture capital method Use it
IVt=Expected revenuet+n×P/S(1+r)n=Expected revenuet+n×P/SROIIV_t = \frac{\text{Expected revenue}_{t+n} \times P/S}{(1 + r)^n} = \frac{\text{Expected revenue}_{t+n} \times P/S}{ROI}
Quick example

Revenue of 40 at the horizon, a price-to-sales multiple of 3 and a target return of 10 times the money: 40 × 3 ÷ 10 = 12.0, the post-money value.

On your calculator
  1. 40×3÷10= 12
  1. 40ENTER3×10÷ 12

ENTER enter (on the HP, puts the number on the stack)

ROI and IRR Use it
ROI=(1+IRR)nROI = (1 + IRR)^n
Quick example

A target IRR of 30% a year for 4 years means an ROI of 1.30⁴ = 2.8561 times the original investment.

On your calculator
  1. 1.3y^x4= 2.8561

y^x power

  1. 1.3ENTER4y^x 2.8561

ENTER enter (on the HP, puts the number on the stack) · y^x power

Pre-money valuation Memorize
Pre-money=Post-money−New equity\text{Pre-money} = \text{Post-money} - \text{New equity}
Quick example

A post-money value of 80 with 20 of new equity means a pre-money value of 80 − 20 = 60.

Fractional ownership Memorize
Fractional ownership=New equityPost-money\text{Fractional ownership} = \frac{\text{New equity}}{\text{Post-money}}
Quick example

New equity of 20 into a post-money value of 80 buys 20 ÷ 80 = 25% of the company.

On your calculator
  1. 20÷80= 0.25
  1. 20ENTER80÷ 0.25

ENTER enter (on the HP, puts the number on the stack)

Growth-phase value from an earnings multiple Use it
IVt=Net incomet+n×P/EROIIV_t = \frac{\text{Net income}_{t+n} \times P/E}{ROI}
Quick example

Net income of 8 at the horizon, a price-to-earnings multiple of 12 and a target return of 4 times the money: 8 × 12 ÷ 4 = 24.0.

On your calculator
  1. 8×12÷4= 24
  1. 8ENTER12×4÷ 24

ENTER enter (on the HP, puts the number on the stack)

Value with a probability of distress Memorize
IVt=Going-concern value×(1−pdistress)+Distress sale value×pdistressIV_t = \text{Going-concern value} \times (1 - p_{distress}) + \text{Distress sale value} \times p_{distress}
Quick example

A going-concern value of 100, a 20% chance of distress and a distress sale worth 30 today: 0.80 × 100 + 0.20 × 30 = 86.

On your calculator
  1. 0.2×30=STO1 6
  2. 0.8×100+RCL1= 86

STO store · RCL recall a stored number

  1. 0.2ENTER30×0.8ENTER100×+ 86

ENTER enter (on the HP, puts the number on the stack)

How it is asked

  1. VC method

    Revenue 54 in 4 years, P/S 2.5, target 6 times.

    54 × 2.5 ÷ 6 = 22.5 post-money. 135 (not discounted) is the trap.

  2. Pre-money and stake

    Post-money 1,600, new money 480.

    Pre-money 1,120; stake 480 ÷ 1,600 = 30%. 480 ÷ 1,120 = 42.9% is the trap.

  3. Probability of distress

    Going concern 320; 10% chance of a sale for 140 in 2 years; required return 14%.

    140 ÷ 1.14² = 107.73; 0.90 × 320 + 0.10 × 107.73 = 298.8. Undiscounted (302.0) and zero (288.0) are the traps.

  4. Which model for which stage?

    A pre-revenue biotech with one drug in trials.

    Start-up: sales multiple at the horizon, discounted at the investor's target return; no near-term cash flow forecast.

Exam traps

  • Calling the VC-method value pre-money: it is post-money; subtract the new equity.
  • Computing the investor's stake on pre-money value instead of post-money.
  • Forgetting to discount the horizon value (or the distress sale value) back to today.
  • Valuing a start-up with next year's sales or a constant growth model; value comes from the horizon.
  • Handling distress by raising the discount rate or using healthy peers' multiples instead of weighting the outcomes.

Checkpoint

3 exam-style questions. About 90 seconds each.

  1. 1An analyst is valuing a pre-revenue software start-up with no operating history. The valuation most likely focuses on:

  2. 2A start-up is expected to reach revenue of CHF 72 million in five years. Comparable later-stage companies trade at 2.0 times sales, and a VC fund targets a return of 9 times its investment over the five years. The start-up's post-money valuation today is closest to:

  3. 3An analyst values a company as a going concern at AUD 240 million. There is a 15% probability that the company will be forced to sell its assets for AUD 80 million in three years. The required return is 20% a year. The value of the company today is closest to:

Key takeaways

  • Development stage, data quality and the analyst's perspective decide how the model is built.
  • Start-up: revenue at the horizon × P/S ÷ ROI = post-money value; ROI = (1 + IRR)^n.
  • Pre-money = post-money − new equity; the investor's stake = new equity ÷ post-money.
  • Growth: horizon net income × P/E ÷ ROI. Decline: weight going-concern and distress values by their probabilities.
  • Controlling investors can change the plan; model an activist's plan as a scenario.
Value from cash flows and a terminal value Know the idea
IVt=∑i=1nE(CFt+i)(1+r)i+E(Pt+n)(1+r)nIV_t = \sum_{i=1}^{n} \frac{E(CF_{t+i})}{(1 + r)^i} + \frac{E(P_{t+n})}{(1 + r)^n}
Quick example

Expected cash flows of 10 and 12, a terminal value of 200 at the end of year 2, required return 12%. 10 ÷ 1.12 + (12 + 200) ÷ 1.12² = 177.93.

On your calculator
  1. 212÷1.2544=STO1 169.01
  2. 10÷1.12+RCL1= 177.93

STO store · RCL recall a stored number

  1. 212ENTER1.2544÷ 169.01
  2. 10ENTER1.12÷+ 177.93

ENTER enter (on the HP, puts the number on the stack)

Venture capital method Use it
IVt=Expected revenuet+n×P/S(1+r)n=Expected revenuet+n×P/SROIIV_t = \frac{\text{Expected revenue}_{t+n} \times P/S}{(1 + r)^n} = \frac{\text{Expected revenue}_{t+n} \times P/S}{ROI}
Quick example

Revenue of 40 at the horizon, a price-to-sales multiple of 3 and a target return of 10 times the money: 40 × 3 ÷ 10 = 12.0, the post-money value.

On your calculator
  1. 40×3÷10= 12
  1. 40ENTER3×10÷ 12

ENTER enter (on the HP, puts the number on the stack)

ROI and IRR Use it
ROI=(1+IRR)nROI = (1 + IRR)^n
Quick example

A target IRR of 30% a year for 4 years means an ROI of 1.30⁴ = 2.8561 times the original investment.

On your calculator
  1. 1.3y^x4= 2.8561

y^x power

  1. 1.3ENTER4y^x 2.8561

ENTER enter (on the HP, puts the number on the stack) · y^x power

Pre-money valuation Memorize
Pre-money=Post-money−New equity\text{Pre-money} = \text{Post-money} - \text{New equity}
Quick example

A post-money value of 80 with 20 of new equity means a pre-money value of 80 − 20 = 60.

Fractional ownership Memorize
Fractional ownership=New equityPost-money\text{Fractional ownership} = \frac{\text{New equity}}{\text{Post-money}}
Quick example

New equity of 20 into a post-money value of 80 buys 20 ÷ 80 = 25% of the company.

On your calculator
  1. 20÷80= 0.25
  1. 20ENTER80÷ 0.25

ENTER enter (on the HP, puts the number on the stack)

Growth-phase value from an earnings multiple Use it
IVt=Net incomet+n×P/EROIIV_t = \frac{\text{Net income}_{t+n} \times P/E}{ROI}
Quick example

Net income of 8 at the horizon, a price-to-earnings multiple of 12 and a target return of 4 times the money: 8 × 12 ÷ 4 = 24.0.

On your calculator
  1. 8×12÷4= 24
  1. 8ENTER12×4÷ 24

ENTER enter (on the HP, puts the number on the stack)

Value with a probability of distress Memorize
IVt=Going-concern value×(1−pdistress)+Distress sale value×pdistressIV_t = \text{Going-concern value} \times (1 - p_{distress}) + \text{Distress sale value} \times p_{distress}
Quick example

A going-concern value of 100, a 20% chance of distress and a distress sale worth 30 today: 0.80 × 100 + 0.20 × 30 = 86.

On your calculator
  1. 0.2×30=STO1 6
  2. 0.8×100+RCL1= 86

STO store · RCL recall a stored number

  1. 0.2ENTER30×0.8ENTER100×+ 86

ENTER enter (on the HP, puts the number on the stack)

All Equities formulas, every lesson

Practice exam-style questions on Financial Statement Forecasting

Questions about this lesson?

Where this comes back

Questions candidates ask

How do you value a start-up in CFA Level 1?

Multiply expected revenue at the end of the horizon by a price-to-sales multiple of later-stage peers and divide by the investor's target return on investment (or discount at the target IRR). The result is the post-money valuation.

What is the difference between pre-money and post-money valuation?

Post-money is the company's value including the new investment. Pre-money is post-money minus the new equity. The new investor owns new equity ÷ post-money.

How do you include the risk of financial distress in a valuation?

Weight the going-concern value and the present value of a distress sale by their probabilities: Value = going-concern value × (1 − p) + distress value × p.

Spotted an error? Tell us and we will fix it.

  1. Why build a disaggregated model, and at what level of detail
  2. Revenue models: historical, bottom-up and top-down
  3. Expense models: margins, itemization and operating leverage
  4. Asset and financing models
  5. Scenario analysis with probability weights
  6. Model construction by company life cycle: from venture to decline
  7. From the forecast model to an equity value

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