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Lesson 3 of 4 11–14% of the exam

Mortgage pass-throughs and CMOs

A mortgage pass-through passes the pool's interest, scheduled principal and prepayments to investors, minus servicing and guarantee fees. A collateralized mortgage obligation (CMO) re-cuts those cash flows into tranches with different exposure to prepayment risk: sequential, planned amortization class (PAC) and support, Z, interest-only (IO), principal-only (PO) and floaters.

8 min cram, 40 min full read. Based on the 2027 CFA® Program Level I curriculum, Fixed Income, Learning Module 19. Also part of the 2026 curriculum, so it applies to the November 2026 exam too.

Tailor this to you: take the self-assessment

Before this: Prepayment risk and time tranching, Residential mortgage loans: the features that matter

On the exam

  • Describe types and characteristics of residential mortgage-backed securities, including mortgage pass-through securities and collateralized mortgage obligations, and explain the cash flows and risks for each type

Describe residential mortgage-backed security (RMBS) types and explain their cash flows and risks. Expect: the weighted average coupon (WAC), weighted average maturity (WAM) or pass-through rate; which tranche absorbs prepayment variability; IO and PO behavior when rates fall; which investor fits which tranche.

How deeply to learn each part
Know the idea
Understand it in general. It frames other topics, but you will not calculate with it.
Use it
Understand it well enough to solve a question with it. Recognize when it applies.
Memorize
Learn it by heart. The exam will not give it to you.

You know this one. The full lesson is folded away. The takeaways, formulas and checkpoint below are your quick refresher, and the checkpoint is a fair test of whether you still do.

You tested strong here. The full lesson is folded away. The takeaways, formulas and checkpoint below are your quick refresher, and the checkpoint is a fair test of whether you still know it.

Cram mode: the one-screen version of this lesson. Switch to Full for the explanations, worked examples and interactives.

How does a pass-through pay investors?

A mortgage pass-through security is created when lenders pool mortgages and sell securities backed by the pool. Each month the pool’s principal, interest and prepayments are passed through to the holders. Part of the interest pays the costs of the structure: the servicer collects payments, keeps records and starts foreclosure when needed, and a guarantor may charge a fee. These fees come out of the mortgage rate.

So investors do not earn the rate borrowers pay. They earn the pass-through rate , and the pool’s rate is measured as a weighted average.

Weighted average coupon Use it
WAC=∑iBi ri∑iBi\text{WAC} = \frac{\sum_i B_i \, r_i}{\sum_i B_i}
Weighted average maturity Use it
WAM=∑iBi mi∑iBi\text{WAM} = \frac{\sum_i B_i \, m_i}{\sum_i B_i}
Pass-through rate Memorize
Pass-through rate=WAC−Fees\text{Pass-through rate} = \text{WAC} - \text{Fees}

The weighted average coupon (WAC) is the average mortgage rate in the pool, weighted by balance. The weighted average maturity (WAM) is the average remaining term in months, also weighted by balance. Large loans count for more than small ones, so a simple average is wrong.

The pool arithmetic can be asked from several sides: the WAC from the loans, the missing loan’s rate, or the pass-through rate from the WAC and fees.

Rearrange itPool WAC and WAM: solve for either average or a missing loan rate
The question asks for
A pool holds four loans: 250,000.00 at 4% with 290 months left; 180,000.00 at 5.25% with 240 months left; 320,000.00 at 3.75% with 340 months left; 150,000.00 at 4.6% with 180 months left. The weighted average coupon is closest to:

3,835,000.00 ÷ 900,000.00 = 4.26%

Weighted average coupon, WAC4.26%

On your calculator
  1. (250000×4)+(180000×5.25)+(320000×3.75)+(150000×4.6)=balance × rate summed
  2. ÷900000=WAC in %
  1. 250000ENTER4×180000ENTER5.25×+320000ENTER3.75×+150000ENTER4.6×+balance × rate summed
  2. 900000÷WAC in %

ENTER enter (on the HP, puts the number on the stack)

Rearrange itPass-through rate: solve for the rate, the WAC or the fees
The question asks for
A pool has a weighted average coupon of 4.55%. Servicing and guarantee fees total 0.48%. The pass-through rate is closest to:

4.55% − 0.48% = 4.07%

Pass-through rate4.07%

On your calculator
  1. 4.55−0.48=rate in %
  1. 4.55ENTER0.48−rate in %

ENTER enter (on the HP, puts the number on the stack)

The two ways to hold a mortgage pool
Residential MBSbonds backed by home loans
  • Mortgage pass-through security Memorize investors share the pool pro rata
    • Cash flows interest + scheduled principal + prepayments, after fees
    • Prepayment risk passed straight through, all of it
  • Collateralized mortgage obligation (CMO) Memorize pass-throughs or loan pools re-cut into tranches
    • Redistributes prepayment risk does not remove it
Go deeper Why the pass-through rate is below the WAC

The gap pays for work and protection. The servicer collects payments, forwards proceeds, sends notices, keeps the balance records, supplies tax information and starts foreclosure when a borrower defaults. A guarantor of timely payment charges a fee. Both fees are set as a slice of the mortgage rate, which is why the investor’s rate is the WAC less that slice.

What is a CMO, and how does it reshape prepayment risk?

A collateralized mortgage obligation (CMO) takes mortgage pass-throughs, or several pools of loans, and re-cuts their cash flows into tranches. The senior-most tranches carry less prepayment and default risk. A CMO does not make prepayments disappear. It decides who feels them.

Loading the interactive…

CMO tranches: who gets what
CMO structuresways to cut the same cash flows
  • Time tranching Memorize the order of principal
    • Sequential-pay Use it principal to A, then B, then C
    • PAC and support Memorize PAC follows a schedule inside a prepayment band; support absorbs the surprise
    • Z-tranche (accrual) Use it no cash until a set date; interest is added to principal
    • Residual Use it whatever is left after every other tranche is paid
  • Splitting the cash flows Memorize by type of payment
    • Principal-only (PO) Memorize principal only; value rises when prepayments speed up
    • Interest-only (IO) Memorize interest only, no par; value falls when prepayments speed up
    • Floater and inverse floater Use it coupon follows, or opposes, a reference rate; caps and floors

Sequential-pay and time-tranched structures

Lesson 1 introduced the sequential-pay tranche : principal goes to A until it is retired, then to B, then to C. Others receive interest only until their turn.

Sequential-pay tranche balance Use it
B1=B0−(Scheduled+Prepaid)B_1 = B_0 - (\text{Scheduled} + \text{Prepaid})
Rearrange itSequential-pay tranche: solve for the new balance or a principal input
The question asks for
In a sequential-pay CMO the first tranche has a balance of 120 million. The pool pays 12 million of scheduled principal and 30 million of prepayments in the year, all of it to this tranche. Its closing balance is closest to:

120 − 12 − 30 = 78

Closing balance (millions)78

On your calculator
  1. 120−12−30=closing balance
  1. 120ENTER12−30−closing balance

ENTER enter (on the HP, puts the number on the stack)

PAC and support tranches

A planned amortization class (PAC) tranche makes scheduled, fixed principal payments over a set period, as long as prepayments stay between a minimum and a maximum speed. That gives it predictable cash flows. The support tranche (also called a companion tranche) takes everything the PAC does not: when prepayments run faster or slower than the band allows, the support tranche’s life shrinks or stretches. Inside the band, the support tranche absorbs all the prepayment risk.

Z-tranches and residual tranches

A Z-tranche (accrual or accretion bond) pays nothing at first. Each period its stated coupon is added to its principal, until a set date when principal and interest start to be paid. It is typically the last tranche. It helps the other tranches, because the interest it does not pay is free to pay them principal. Its holders have no reinvestment risk while it accrues. Its average life is usually over 20 years, so it is risky and hard to value.

A residual tranche collects whatever cash flow remains after every other tranche is paid. It suits investors who can accept and hedge the risk, such as hedge funds and long-term institutions. Banks usually avoid it because of capital requirements.

Splitting interest and principal

A principal-only (PO) security receives only principal. Its holder gets par, so a faster return of principal raises its value: when rates fall and prepayments rise, a PO gains. An interest-only (IO) security receives only interest and has no par value. When prepayments rise, the balance on which interest is paid shrinks, and the IO loses value. IOs can hedge interest rate risk in a portfolio.

Exam tip PO = principal back sooner = good. IO = interest stream cut short = bad. They are mirrors.

Floaters and inverse floaters

In the last group, floating-rate and inverse floater tranches have coupons linked to a reference rate, often with a cap and a floor. A floater’s coupon moves with the reference rate. An inverse floater’s coupon moves the opposite way, and it is used to hedge rate risk.

Which investor fits which tranche?

Investor needLikely tranche
Cash needed in 2 to 3 yearsShort sequential tranche or PAC
Insurer with liabilities in 10 to 15 yearsLonger tranche
Seeks higher return and can hedge the riskSupport, Z or residual
Go deeper Why Z-tranches help the earlier tranches

While the Z-tranche accrues, its interest is not paid out. That cash is redirected to pay principal to the earlier tranches, which retires them faster and shortens their lives. The Z-tranche pays for this by waiting: it accrues at its coupon and ends up with a larger balance and a long average life.

Go deeper Inverse floaters as a leveraged bet on falling rates

An inverse floater’s coupon rises when the reference rate falls. In some structures the coupon moves by a multiple of the change in the reference rate, which makes the position behave like a leveraged bet on falling rates. Falling rates also tend to bring faster prepayments, so the structure’s prepayment risk matters to its value.

Memorize this

MemorizePool arithmetic

MeasureRule
WACBalance-weighted average mortgage rate
WAMBalance-weighted average remaining term
Pass-through rateWAC − servicing and guarantee fees
Sequential-pay tranche balancePrior balance − scheduled principal − prepayments

Memory hook Weights are always balances, never loan counts: a big loan counts more.

Know it cold Pass-through rate is lower than WAC. Never take a simple average for WAC or WAM.

MemorizeTranche behavior

TrancheWhat it receivesKey fact
Sequential AAll principal firstShort life; protected from extension
PACScheduled principal inside a bandStable and predictable
SupportThe restAbsorbs the prepayment risk
Z (accrual)Nothing until a set dateNo reinvestment risk while accruing; average life often over 20 years
POPrincipal onlyGains when rates fall and prepayments rise
IOInterest only; no par valueLoses when prepayments rise; used to hedge
Inverse floaterCoupon moves against the reference rateUsed to hedge
ResidualWhat is leftFor investors who can hedge; banks avoid it

Memory hook PO is paid its par sooner (good). IO has its interest stream shrink (bad). One is the mirror of the other.

Know it cold PAC = predictable. Support = takes the surprise. Z = accrues. Residual = leftovers.

MemorizeMatch the investor to the tranche

NeedLikely tranche
Cash in 2 to 3 yearsShort sequential or PAC
Liabilities in 10 to 15 yearsLonger tranche
Seeks return and can hedgeSupport, Z or residual

Memory hook Match the tranche life to the liability date; take the risky tranches only if you can hedge.

The two ways to hold a mortgage pool
Residential MBSbonds backed by home loans
  • Mortgage pass-through security Memorize investors share the pool pro rata
    • Cash flows interest + scheduled principal + prepayments, after fees
    • Prepayment risk passed straight through, all of it
  • Collateralized mortgage obligation (CMO) Memorize pass-throughs or loan pools re-cut into tranches
    • Redistributes prepayment risk does not remove it
CMO tranches: who gets what
CMO structuresways to cut the same cash flows
  • Time tranching Memorize the order of principal
    • Sequential-pay Use it principal to A, then B, then C
    • PAC and support Memorize PAC follows a schedule inside a prepayment band; support absorbs the surprise
    • Z-tranche (accrual) Use it no cash until a set date; interest is added to principal
    • Residual Use it whatever is left after every other tranche is paid
  • Splitting the cash flows Memorize by type of payment
    • Principal-only (PO) Memorize principal only; value rises when prepayments speed up
    • Interest-only (IO) Memorize interest only, no par; value falls when prepayments speed up
    • Floater and inverse floater Use it coupon follows, or opposes, a reference rate; caps and floors
Weighted average coupon Use it
WAC=∑iBi ri∑iBi\text{WAC} = \frac{\sum_i B_i \, r_i}{\sum_i B_i}
Quick example

Loans of 250 at 3.2%, 350 at 3.8% and 400 at 4.7%. (250 × 3.2 + 350 × 3.8 + 400 × 4.7) ÷ 1,000 = 4.01%.

On your calculator
  1. (250×3.2)+(350×3.8)+(400×4.7)= 4,010
  2. ÷1000= 4.01
  1. 250ENTER3.2×350ENTER3.8×+400ENTER4.7×+ 4,010
  2. 1000÷ 4.01

ENTER enter (on the HP, puts the number on the stack)

Weighted average maturity Use it
WAM=∑iBi mi∑iBi\text{WAM} = \frac{\sum_i B_i \, m_i}{\sum_i B_i}
Quick example

Loans of 400 with 280 months left and 600 with 180 months left. (400 × 280 + 600 × 180) ÷ 1,000 = 220 months.

On your calculator
  1. (400×280)+(600×180)= 220,000
  2. ÷1000= 220
  1. 400ENTER280×600ENTER180×+ 220,000
  2. 1000÷ 220

ENTER enter (on the HP, puts the number on the stack)

Pass-through rate Memorize
Pass-through rate=WAC−Fees\text{Pass-through rate} = \text{WAC} - \text{Fees}
Quick example

WAC of 4.55% and fees of 0.48%. 4.55 − 0.48 = 4.07%.

On your calculator
  1. 4.55−0.48= 4.07
  1. 4.55ENTER0.48− 4.07

ENTER enter (on the HP, puts the number on the stack)

Sequential-pay tranche balance Use it
B1=B0−(Scheduled+Prepaid)B_1 = B_0 - (\text{Scheduled} + \text{Prepaid})
Quick example

Tranche A of 160 is first in line. Pool principal in year 1: 14 scheduled and 36 prepaid. 160 − 14 − 36 = 110.

On your calculator
  1. 160−14−36= 110
  1. 160ENTER14−36− 110

ENTER enter (on the HP, puts the number on the stack)

How it is asked

  1. Compute WAC

    Mortgages of 250,000 at 3.2%, 350,000 at 3.8% and 400,000 at 4.7%. WAC?

    Weight by balance: 4.01%. Traps: 3.90% (simple average) and 3.66% (WAC less a 0.35% fee).

  2. From WAC to pass-through rate

    WAC 4.55%; servicing and guarantee fees 0.48%. Pass-through rate?

    4.07%. Trap: adding the fees to get 5.03%.

  3. Rates fall, prepayments rise

    Which security loses value when prepayments accelerate?

    IO. Trap: PO, which gains because par arrives sooner.

  4. Who absorbs prepayment variability

    In a CMO with a PAC, prepayment variability is mainly absorbed by...

    The support tranche. Trap: the PAC.

Exam traps

  • Taking a simple average for WAC or WAM. Weight by balance.
  • Saying IO values rise when prepayments accelerate. IO loses; PO gains.
  • Saying the PAC absorbs prepayment surprises. The support tranche does.
  • Adding fees to WAC. The pass-through rate is WAC less fees.

Checkpoint

6 exam-style questions. About 90 seconds each.

  1. 1A pool holds three mortgages: USD 200,000 at 3.5%, USD 300,000 at 4.5% and USD 500,000 at 4.8%. Its weighted average coupon is closest to:

  2. 2If mortgage rates fall and prepayments accelerate, the value of a principal-only security most likely:

  3. 3In a CMO with a planned amortization class, the prepayment variability is mainly absorbed by the:

  4. 4A pass-through pool has a weighted average coupon of 4.82%. Servicing and guarantee fees total 0.62%. The pass-through rate paid to investors is closest to:

  5. 5A sequential-pay CMO has Tranche A of EUR 150 million, Tranche B of EUR 100 million and Tranche C of EUR 50 million. In year 1 the pool pays EUR 18 million of scheduled principal and EUR 27 million of prepayments. The balance of Tranche A at the end of year 1 is closest to:

  6. 6Mortgage rates fall and prepayments rise. Which security most likely falls in value?

Key takeaways

  • Pass-through: pool cash flows minus fees, shared pro rata; pass-through rate is below WAC.
  • WAC and WAM are balance-weighted.
  • CMOs redistribute prepayment risk (sequential, PAC and support, Z, IO and PO, floaters, residual). They never remove it.
  • PO likes fast prepayments; IO hates them.
Weighted average coupon Use it
WAC=∑iBi ri∑iBi\text{WAC} = \frac{\sum_i B_i \, r_i}{\sum_i B_i}
Quick example

Loans of 250 at 3.2%, 350 at 3.8% and 400 at 4.7%. (250 × 3.2 + 350 × 3.8 + 400 × 4.7) ÷ 1,000 = 4.01%.

On your calculator
  1. (250×3.2)+(350×3.8)+(400×4.7)= 4,010
  2. ÷1000= 4.01
  1. 250ENTER3.2×350ENTER3.8×+400ENTER4.7×+ 4,010
  2. 1000÷ 4.01

ENTER enter (on the HP, puts the number on the stack)

Weighted average maturity Use it
WAM=∑iBi mi∑iBi\text{WAM} = \frac{\sum_i B_i \, m_i}{\sum_i B_i}
Quick example

Loans of 400 with 280 months left and 600 with 180 months left. (400 × 280 + 600 × 180) ÷ 1,000 = 220 months.

On your calculator
  1. (400×280)+(600×180)= 220,000
  2. ÷1000= 220
  1. 400ENTER280×600ENTER180×+ 220,000
  2. 1000÷ 220

ENTER enter (on the HP, puts the number on the stack)

Pass-through rate Memorize
Pass-through rate=WAC−Fees\text{Pass-through rate} = \text{WAC} - \text{Fees}
Quick example

WAC of 4.55% and fees of 0.48%. 4.55 − 0.48 = 4.07%.

On your calculator
  1. 4.55−0.48= 4.07
  1. 4.55ENTER0.48− 4.07

ENTER enter (on the HP, puts the number on the stack)

Sequential-pay tranche balance Use it
B1=B0−(Scheduled+Prepaid)B_1 = B_0 - (\text{Scheduled} + \text{Prepaid})
Quick example

Tranche A of 160 is first in line. Pool principal in year 1: 14 scheduled and 36 prepaid. 160 − 14 − 36 = 110.

On your calculator
  1. 160−14−36= 110
  1. 160ENTER14−36− 110

ENTER enter (on the HP, puts the number on the stack)

All Fixed Income formulas, every lesson

Practice exam-style questions on Mortgage-Backed Securities: RMBS, CMOs and CMBS

Questions about this lesson?

Where this comes back

Questions candidates ask

What is a mortgage pass-through security?

A security that passes a mortgage pool's interest, scheduled principal and prepayments to its holders, after servicing and guarantee fees. Holders share the pool pro rata, so they bear all of its prepayment risk.

What is a CMO?

A collateralized mortgage obligation re-cuts the cash flows of mortgage pass-throughs or loan pools into tranches. The tranches have different exposure to prepayment risk, for example sequential, PAC and support, Z, IO, PO, floater and residual.

What is the difference between IO and PO strips?

An IO receives only interest and has no par value, so it loses value when prepayments speed up. A PO receives only principal, so it gains when prepayments speed up, because par arrives sooner.

Spotted an error? Tell us and we will fix it.

  1. Prepayment risk and time tranching
  2. Residential mortgage loans: the features that matter
  3. Mortgage pass-throughs and CMOs
  4. Commercial mortgage-backed securities (CMBS)

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