Cash flow additivity and implied forward rates
Cash flows at the same date can be added, and so can their present values. So two strategies that deliver identical cash flows must cost the same today; if not, an arbitrageur buys the cheap one and sells the dear one. Applied to rates, investing for two years must equal investing for one year and rolling over at the implied forward rate.
Watch the lesson 17 min
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Before this: Pricing bonds: zero-coupon, coupon and perpetual
On the exam
- Explain the cash flow additivity principle and its importance for the condition of no arbitrage, and explain its use in calculating implied forward interest rates, forward exchange rates, and option values
Explain cash flow additivity and the no-arbitrage condition, and use them to calculate implied forward interest rates. Expect a one-year forward from two spot rates or two zero prices, a forward from three spot rates (a two-year forward needs a square root), and which of two cash-flow streams is worth more.
How deeply to learn each part
- Know the idea
- Understand it in general. It frames other topics, but you will not calculate with it.
- Use it
- Understand it well enough to solve a question with it. Recognize when it applies.
- Memorize
- Learn it by heart. The exam will not give it to you.
You know this one. The full lesson is folded away. The takeaways, formulas and checkpoint below are your quick refresher, and the checkpoint is a fair test of whether you still do.
You tested strong here. The full lesson is folded away. The takeaways, formulas and checkpoint below are your quick refresher, and the checkpoint is a fair test of whether you still know it.
What is cash flow additivity?
The cash flow additivity principle says that cash flows falling on the same date can be added, and so can their present values: PV(A + B) = PV(A) + PV(B). Break a stream into pieces, value each, and add. Or net two streams and value the difference.
The same idea compares strategies. Two investments that look different can be economically the same.
What does no arbitrage require?
The no-arbitrage condition says no one can earn a riskless profit without investing anything. If two strategies deliver identical cash flows on the same dates, additivity makes their present values equal, so they must cost the same. If they did not, a trader would buy the cheaper, sell the dearer, collect the difference today and owe nothing later. Trading pushes the prices together.
- Same price today Memorize the no-arbitrage condition holds
- Different prices today Memorize an arbitrage exists
- Buy the cheap one, sell the dear one cash flows cancel, the price gap is a riskless profit
- Trading pushes the prices together until the profit disappears
-
How do you find an implied forward rate?
A spot rate is the rate today for money lent from now to a given date. An implied forward rate is the rate agreed today for a loan that starts at one future date and ends at a later one, deduced from spot rates. We write for a loan from year A to year B, so is the one-year rate one year from now.
Exam tip Not every source writes it this way. Some put the length of the loan second, so the one-year rate starting in two years can appear as F₂,₁ or F₂,₃. Read the words in the question (when the loan starts and how long it lasts) and the arithmetic is the same.
- Spot rate S Memorize the rate today for money lent from now until a date
- Forward rate Memorize the rate agreed today for a loan from year A to year B, written
- Implied by spot rates the rate that makes rolling over equal to investing long
-
Investing for two years at the 2-year spot rate must give the same money as investing for one year and then rolling over at the forward rate. If it did not, there would be an arbitrage. The forward rate is the breakeven reinvestment rate : the rate at which rolling over one-year deposits exactly matches the two-year deposit.
The 1-year spot rate is 3.00% and the 2-year spot rate is 3.80%. The implied annual forward rate for the loan that starts in year 1 and ends in year 2 (1 year(s) long) is closest to:
(1.038^2 ÷ 1.03^1)^(1/1) − 1 = 4.61%
Forward rate (per year, from year A to year B)4.61%
- 1.038y^x2=÷(1.03y^x1)=y^x(1÷1)=−1=a decimal
y^x power
- 1.038ENTER2y^x1.03ENTER1y^x÷1ENTER1÷y^x1−a decimal
ENTER enter (on the HP, puts the number on the stack) · y^x power
Try this 0 of 3
- Make the forward line sit exactly on the spot curve
- Load the falling curve and find a forward below every spot rate
- Raise S₂ until F₁,₂ reaches 5.5%
Drag the spot points (or type them), then pick which forward to lock in.
- Spot rate
- One-year forward
- F₁,₂ (1 year, starting in 1 year)
Spot rates 3.00%, 3.80%, 4.20%, 4.50%, 4.70% for years 1 to 5 imply one-year forward rates 3.00%, 4.61%, 5.00%, 5.41%, 5.50%. F₁,₂ is 4.61%.
USD 100 two ways (interest earned)
- Interest at the 2-year spot
- Interest in year 1
- Interest while rolling at F₁,₂
Both routes end at USD 107.74, so neither route beats the other. F₁,₂ is above the 2-year spot rate because spot rates rise over this stretch.
Some questions put the length second: F₂,₁ for the one-year rate starting in two years. Read the words.
Show working
No arbitrage: (1 + S₂)² = (1 + S₁) × (1 + F₁,₂).
F₁,₂ = [(1 + 3.80%)² ÷ (1 + 3.00%)] − 1 = (1.077444 ÷ 1.030000) − 1 = 4.61%.
Shortcut: (2 × 3.80% − 1 × 3.00%) ÷ 1 = 4.60%. Close, but answer choices can sit this close together, so compound.
- 1.038x²÷1.03=(1 + S₂)² ÷ (1 + S₁)
- −1=0.0461
x² square
- 1.038ENTER×1.03÷(1 + S₂)² ÷ (1 + S₁)
- 1−0.0461
ENTER enter (on the HP, puts the number on the stack)
Display: 0.0461 = 4.61%
A forward loan can last longer than a year. The general form compares the long way round with the short way round plus the forward loan.
When the spot curve rises, forward rates sit above the spot rates (F₁,₂ is above S₂); when it falls, they sit below.
From zero-coupon prices
A 1-year zero costs P₁ per 100 and a 2-year zero costs P₂. Buying the 2-year zero should give the same as buying the 1-year zero and rolling the proceeds forward.
A 1-year zero-coupon bond trades at 97.09 and a 2-year zero at 92.81 (per 100 of face value). The implied 1-year rate from year 1 to year 2 is closest to:
97.09 ÷ 92.81 − 1 = 4.61%
Forward rate, F₁,₂4.61%
- 97.09÷92.81−1=a decimal
- 97.09ENTER92.81÷1−a decimal
ENTER enter (on the HP, puts the number on the stack)
Go deeper An arbitrage, step by step
With spot rates of 3.0% and 3.8%, the implied rate F₁,₂ is 4.61%. Suppose a bank offers to lock a one-year rate, starting in a year, of 5.50%. That is above the implied rate, so lending at it pays too well.
- Borrow 100 for two years at 3.8%. In two years you owe 100 × 1.038² = 107.7444.
- Lend 100 for one year at 3.0%, then lend the 103 for a second year at the locked 5.50%. In two years you receive 103 × 1.055 = 108.665.
- Profit: 108.665 − 107.7444 = 0.92 in two years, from nothing today and no risk.
Everyone would do this, so the 5.50% could not last. The locked rate would be pushed back to 4.61%.
- 103×1.055= 108.665 received
- −(1.038y^x2×100)= 0.92 profit
y^x power
- 103ENTER1.055× 108.665 received
- 1.038ENTER2y^x100× 107.7444 owed
- − 0.92 profit
ENTER enter (on the HP, puts the number on the stack) · y^x power
Go deeper A forward rate is a break-even rate, not a forecast
The implied forward rate says nothing about what will happen. It is the rate at which a borrower or lender is indifferent between one long loan and two short ones. If rates in a year turn out above it, rolling over short loans beats the long loan; if below, the long loan wins. The Fixed Income module on the term structure uses forward rates to describe what the curve implies, not to predict.
Memorize this
MemorizeReading the forward rate
| Notation | Meaning | From spot rates |
|---|---|---|
| 1-year rate, from year 1 to year 2 | ||
| 1-year rate, from year 2 to year 3 | ||
| 2-year rate, from year 1 to year 3 |
Memory hook Subscripts are start and end. Long way round on top, short way round underneath; take the root for the number of years in between.
Know it cold Compound the spot rates, never average them. Same cash flows, same price: otherwise arbitrage.
- Same price today Memorize the no-arbitrage condition holds
- Different prices today Memorize an arbitrage exists
- Buy the cheap one, sell the dear one cash flows cancel, the price gap is a riskless profit
- Trading pushes the prices together until the profit disappears
-
- Spot rate S Memorize the rate today for money lent from now until a date
- Forward rate Memorize the rate agreed today for a loan from year A to year B, written
- Implied by spot rates the rate that makes rolling over equal to investing long
-
Quick example
A 2-year 5% coupon bond equals a 1-year zero paying 5 plus a 2-year zero paying 105. At spot rates 3.0% and 3.8%: 5 ÷ 1.03 + 105 ÷ 1.038² = 102.31.
- 5÷1.03=STO1 4.8544
- 105÷(1.038y^x2)=+RCL1= 102.31
STO store · y^x power · RCL recall a stored number
- 5ENTER1.03÷105ENTER1.038ENTER2y^x÷+ 102.31
ENTER enter (on the HP, puts the number on the stack) · y^x power
Quick example
S₁ = 3.0%, S₂ = 3.8%. 1.038² ÷ 1.03 − 1 = 4.61%.
- 1.038y^x2=÷1.03−1= 0.0461
y^x power
- 1.038ENTER2y^x1.03÷1− 0.0461
ENTER enter (on the HP, puts the number on the stack) · y^x power
Quick example
S₁ = 3.0%, S₃ = 4.2%. The 2-year rate from year 1 to year 3, F₁,₃: (1.042³ ÷ 1.03)^(1/2) − 1 = 4.81% a year.
- 1.042y^x3=÷1.03=y^x0.5=−1= 0.0481
y^x power
- 1.042ENTER3y^x1.03÷0.5y^x1− 0.0481
ENTER enter (on the HP, puts the number on the stack) · y^x power
Quick example
1-year zero 97.09, 2-year zero 92.81 per 100. 97.09 ÷ 92.81 − 1 = 4.61%.
- 97.09÷92.81−1= 0.0461
- 97.09ENTER92.81÷1− 0.0461
ENTER enter (on the HP, puts the number on the stack)
How it is asked
-
Forward rate from two spot rates
S₁ = 1.6%, S₂ = 2.7%. F₁,₂?
1.027² ÷ 1.016 − 1 = 3.81%. Averaging the spots (2.15%) and quoting S₂ (2.70%) are the traps.
-
Forward rate from zero prices
1-year zero 98.04, 2-year zero 94.20. F₁,₂?
98.04 ÷ 94.20 − 1 = 4.08%. The 1-year spot (2.00%) and the 2-year spot (3.03%) are the traps.
-
Forward rate starting later
Spots 3.0%, 3.8%, 4.2%. F₂,₃?
1.042³ ÷ 1.038² − 1 = 5.00%.
-
Two-year forward
Spots 3.0%, 3.8%, 4.2%. Two-year rate starting in a year?
(1.042³ ÷ 1.03)^(1/2) − 1 = 4.81%. Forgetting the square root (9.84%) is the trap.
-
Which stream is worth more?
Both cost 500. A pays 260, 200, 100; B pays 100, 200, 260. Rate 5%.
Difference A − B: +160 in year 1, −160 in year 3: 160 ÷ 1.05 − 160 ÷ 1.05³ = +14.17, so A. Equal totals do not mean equal value.
-
Which principle?
Two portfolios pay the same amounts on the same dates. Their prices today?
Must be equal: the no-arbitrage condition.
Exam traps
- Averaging the two spot rates instead of compounding them.
- Dividing (1 + S₂) by (1 + S₁) without squaring the numerator.
- Using the 2-year spot rate as the forward rate.
- Forgetting the square root (or other root) when the forward loan lasts more than one year.
- Calling two streams equivalent because their totals match, without discounting the differences.
Checkpoint
3 exam-style questions. About 90 seconds each.
1The 1-year spot rate is 2.5% and the 2-year spot rate is 3.25%. The 1-year rate one year from now (F₁,₂) is closest to:
2A 1-year zero-coupon bond trades at 96.15 and a 2-year zero at 91.80 (per 100 of face value). The implied 1-year forward rate one year from now is closest to:
3Spot rates are 2.2% for one year, 2.8% for two years and 3.3% for three years (annual compounding). The implied two-year rate, per year, for a loan starting one year from now is closest to:
Key takeaways
- Present values add when cash flows share dates.
- Same cash flows, same price; otherwise arbitrage.
- F₁,₂ = (1 + S₂)² ÷ (1 + S₁) − 1, or P₁ ÷ P₂ − 1 from zero-coupon prices.
- Rising spot curve, forwards above spots; falling curve, forwards below.
Quick example
A 2-year 5% coupon bond equals a 1-year zero paying 5 plus a 2-year zero paying 105. At spot rates 3.0% and 3.8%: 5 ÷ 1.03 + 105 ÷ 1.038² = 102.31.
- 5÷1.03=STO1 4.8544
- 105÷(1.038y^x2)=+RCL1= 102.31
STO store · y^x power · RCL recall a stored number
- 5ENTER1.03÷105ENTER1.038ENTER2y^x÷+ 102.31
ENTER enter (on the HP, puts the number on the stack) · y^x power
Quick example
S₁ = 3.0%, S₂ = 3.8%. 1.038² ÷ 1.03 − 1 = 4.61%.
- 1.038y^x2=÷1.03−1= 0.0461
y^x power
- 1.038ENTER2y^x1.03÷1− 0.0461
ENTER enter (on the HP, puts the number on the stack) · y^x power
Quick example
S₁ = 3.0%, S₃ = 4.2%. The 2-year rate from year 1 to year 3, F₁,₃: (1.042³ ÷ 1.03)^(1/2) − 1 = 4.81% a year.
- 1.042y^x3=÷1.03=y^x0.5=−1= 0.0481
y^x power
- 1.042ENTER3y^x1.03÷0.5y^x1− 0.0481
ENTER enter (on the HP, puts the number on the stack) · y^x power
Quick example
1-year zero 97.09, 2-year zero 92.81 per 100. 97.09 ÷ 92.81 − 1 = 4.61%.
- 97.09÷92.81−1= 0.0461
- 97.09ENTER92.81÷1− 0.0461
ENTER enter (on the HP, puts the number on the stack)
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Practice exam-style questions on Time Value of Money in Finance
Questions about this lesson?
Where this comes back
- Term Structure: Spot, Par and Forward Curves Fixed Income
- Arbitrage, Replication and the Cost of Carry Derivatives
Questions candidates ask
What is the cash flow additivity principle?
The present value of a set of cash flows at the same dates equals the sum of the present values of the individual flows. It lets you split a bond into zeros, or compare two strategies by looking at the difference between their cash flows.
How do you calculate an implied forward rate?
Set investing for two years equal to investing for one year and rolling over: (1 + S₂)² = (1 + S₁)(1 + F₁,₂). Solve F₁,₂ = (1 + S₂)² ÷ (1 + S₁) − 1. With spot rates of 3.0% and 3.8% that gives 4.61%.
Is a forward rate a forecast of future interest rates?
No. It is the break-even rate that makes rolling over short loans cost the same as one long loan today. Actual future rates can come out higher or lower. The forward rate is what no arbitrage requires, not what anyone expects. It is the breakeven reinvestment rate.
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