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Lesson 2 of 3 11–14% of the exam

Impairment and derecognition of PP&E and intangibles

An asset is impaired when its carrying amount is not recoverable. International Financial Reporting Standards (IFRS) write it down to the higher of fair value less costs to sell and value in use. US generally accepted accounting principles (GAAP) first test undiscounted cash flows, then write down to fair value. A sale gives proceeds minus carrying amount.

10 min cram, 44 min full read. Based on the 2027 CFA® Program Level I curriculum, Financial Statement Analysis, Learning Module 7. Also part of the 2026 curriculum, so it applies to the November 2026 exam too.

Tailor this to you: take the self-assessment

Before this: Purchased, internally developed and acquired intangibles

On the exam

  • Explain and evaluate how impairment and derecognition of property, plant, and equipment and intangible assets affect the financial statements and ratios

Explain and evaluate impairment and derecognition and their effect on the statements and ratios. Expect an impairment calculation under one or both frameworks, a 'reversal allowed?' item and a gain or loss on sale.

How deeply to learn each part
Know the idea
Understand it in general. It frames other topics, but you will not calculate with it.
Use it
Understand it well enough to solve a question with it. Recognize when it applies.
Memorize
Learn it by heart. The exam will not give it to you.

You know this one. The full lesson is folded away. The takeaways, formulas and checkpoint below are your quick refresher, and the checkpoint is a fair test of whether you still do.

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Cram mode: the one-screen version of this lesson. Switch to Full for the explanations, worked examples and interactives.

When is a long-lived asset impaired?

When its carrying amount is more than the company can recover from it. Depreciation spreads cost over a life; impairment is an unexpected drop in value on top of that. Both frameworks require a write-down, but they define “recover” differently.

Property, plant, and equipment (PP&E) and finite-life intangibles are not tested every year. At each reporting date the company looks for indicators such as obsolescence, falling demand or a technology change, and runs a test only if it finds one. Indefinite-life intangibles and goodwill are different: they are not amortized, so they are tested at least annually.

Impairment testing: one step or two
Impairment of PP&E and finite-life intangibleschecked when there are indicators
  • IFRS: one step Memorize compare CA with recoverable amount
    • Recoverable amount higher of FVLCS and value in use
    • Loss CA − recoverable amount
  • US GAAP: two steps Memorize assets held for use
    • Step 1: recoverability CA > undiscounted cash flows?
    • Step 2: measurement loss = CA − fair value

How does IFRS measure the loss?

Memorize

In one step: compare the carrying amount with the recoverable amount , the higher of two values. Fair value less costs to sell is what a sale would net. Value in use is the present value of the cash flows the company expects the asset to produce.

Recoverable amount (IFRS) Memorize
RA=max⁡(FVLCS, VIU)RA = \max(FVLCS,\ VIU)
IFRS impairment loss Memorize
L=CA−RAL = CA - RA

Taking the higher of the two is the point: the asset is only written down to the best the company can get from it, by selling or by using it. If CA is at or below RA, there is no loss.

Rearrange itIFRS impairment: solve for the loss, the recoverable amount or the carrying amount
The question asks for
Under IFRS, an asset has a carrying amount of 30,000.00, fair value less costs to sell of 22,000.00 and value in use of 25,000.00. The impairment loss is closest to:

30,000.00 − max(22,000.00, 25,000.00) = 5,000.00

Impairment loss5,000.00

On your calculator
  1. 30000−25000=25000 is the higher of 22000 and 25000, so zero or negative means no loss
  1. 30000ENTER25000−25000 is the higher of 22000 and 25000, so zero or negative means no loss

ENTER enter (on the HP, puts the number on the stack)

How does US GAAP measure the loss?

Memorize

In two steps, for assets held for use. Step 1 is the recoverability test : is the carrying amount more than the undiscounted cash flows the asset is expected to produce? If not, stop. There is no impairment. If it is, step 2 writes the asset down to fair value.

US GAAP impairment loss Memorize
L={CA−FVif CA>UCF0otherwiseL = \begin{cases} CA - FV & \text{if } CA > UCF \\ 0 & \text{otherwise} \end{cases}

Undiscounted cash flows only decide whether to write down. They never set the size of the loss.

Rearrange itUS GAAP impairment: recoverability test, then loss against fair value
The question asks for
Under US GAAP, an asset held for use has a carrying amount of 30,000.00, undiscounted expected cash flows of 28,000.00 and a fair value of 23,000.00. The impairment loss is closest to:

30,000.00 > 28,000.00, so impaired: 30,000.00 − 23,000.00 = 7,000.00

Impairment loss7,000.00

On your calculator
  1. 30000−28000=positive, so not recoverable
  2. 30000−23000=loss against fair value
  1. 30000ENTER28000−positive, so not recoverable
  2. 30000ENTER23000−loss against fair value

ENTER enter (on the HP, puts the number on the stack)

InteractiveImpairment: one asset, two tests

Try this 0 of 3

  • Find numbers where US GAAP books a bigger loss than IFRS
  • Make the IFRS loss disappear without changing the carrying amount
  • Pass the US GAAP test while fair value is half the carrying amount or less
IFRS loss5,000
US GAAP loss0
New carrying amount25,000

Recoverable amount is the higher of 22,000 and 25,000: 25,000. Loss 5,000.

Show working

IFRS: recoverable = max(23,000 − 1,000, 25,000) = 25,000; loss = max(0, 30,000 − 25,000) = 5,000

US GAAP: step 1, is 30,000 > 32,000? No. Stop: loss = 0

Either way: profit, assets and equity fall; no cash moves. Later depreciation is lower. Reversals: IFRS allows them (not for goodwill), US GAAP does not for assets held for use.

On your calculator
  1. 30000−25000=5000
  1. 30000ENTER25000−5000

ENTER enter (on the HP, puts the number on the stack)

IFRS asks what the asset is worth; US GAAP first asks whether the cash will come back at all.

What about intangibles, held-for-sale assets and reversals?

Finite-life intangibles follow the same tests as PP&E. Indefinite-life intangibles are tested at least annually: under US GAAP the loss is the excess of carrying amount over fair value; under IFRS it is the excess over recoverable amount. Goodwill is covered in the balance sheet module.

An asset is held for sale when management intends to sell it, the sale is highly probable and the asset is available for immediate sale in its present condition. At reclassification the company tests it: if carrying amount exceeds fair value less costs to sell, it writes the asset down to that amount. Depreciation and amortization then stop.

An impairment reversal writes an asset back up after its recoverable amount has recovered:

CaseIFRSUS GAAP
Held for useReversal allowed, shown in profit (never for goodwill)Prohibited
Held for saleAllowed, up to the earlier write-downAllowed, up to the earlier write-down
CapCarrying amount cannot exceed what it would have been with no impairment (net of normal depreciation)n/a
Largest IFRS reversal Use it
Reversal=min⁡(RA, CAno impairment)−CAnowReversal = \min(RA,\ CA_{\text{no impairment}}) - CA_{\text{now}}

Exam tip IFRS lets you reverse an impairment but never revalue an asset above its pre-impairment path. If an option has the asset climbing above the no-impairment amount, it is wrong.

What does an impairment do to the statements and ratios?

It is a non-cash charge, so the effect is on profit and the balance sheet, not on cash. The next years look better than they would have.

Year of impairmentLater years
Net incomeLower (loss in profit)Higher (depreciation falls)
Total assets and equityLowerLower than without the write-down
Cash flow from operationsUnchanged (the loss is added back)Unchanged
Debt-to-equityHigherHigher than if no impairment
Return on assets (ROA), margins, asset turnoverROA usually lowerHigher: smaller denominator and lower depreciation

For Lakeshore, assume five years of life remain. Before the write-down, depreciation is 30,000 ÷ 5 = 6,000 a year. After it, 25,000 ÷ 5 = 5,000. Pre-tax profit is 1,000 higher every year, on a smaller asset base.

Analysts read impairments as evidence that past spending or acquisitions were overvalued. They check the assumptions in the notes (discount rates, growth rates), because value in use rests on management judgment.

How is an asset removed from the books?

Derecognition means removing an asset from the books. It happens when the asset is disposed of or no future benefit is expected from using or selling it. Routes: sale, exchange, abandonment, or distribution to shareholders. Assets disposed of other than by sale stay classified as held for use, and keep being depreciated and tested, until they leave.

Ways an asset leaves the balance sheet
Derecognitiondisposed of, or no future benefits expected
  • Sale Memorize gain or loss = proceeds − CA
  • Abandonment Use it loss = CA
  • Exchange Use it gain or loss = fair value received − CA given up
  • Spin-off Use it no gain or loss; distributed to shareholders
Gain or loss on sale Memorize
G=P−(C−AD)G = P - (C - AD)

P is the proceeds, C the original cost, AD accumulated depreciation, and C − AD the carrying amount. The gain or loss on sale goes in profit, often in other income. In the cash flow statement, the full proceeds are an investing inflow, and under the indirect method the gain is subtracted (or the loss added back) in CFO so the cash is not counted twice.

Rearrange itSale of a long-lived asset: gain or loss, proceeds, accumulated depreciation
The question asks for
A company sells an asset that cost 120.00 and has accumulated depreciation of 75.00 for 38.00. The gain (a negative figure is a loss) is closest to:

38.00 − (120.00 − 75.00) = -7.00

Gain (negative = loss)-7.00

On your calculator
  1. 120−75=carrying amount
  2. +|-+38=gain, negative if a loss

+|- change sign

  1. 120ENTER75−carrying amount
  2. CHS38+gain, negative if a loss

ENTER enter (on the HP, puts the number on the stack) · CHS change sign

Abandonment or retirement works like a sale with no proceeds, so the loss equals the carrying amount. In an asset exchange , remove the asset given up, record the new one at fair value (the fair value of the asset given up unless the one received is more clearly evident), and book the difference as a gain or loss. A machine carried at 45 with a fair value of 52, swapped for another, records the new asset at 52 and a gain of 7. If no reliable fair value exists, the new asset takes the old carrying amount and no gain or loss arises. A spin-off distributes a whole business to shareholders at no gain or loss; its assets and liabilities are shown as held for distribution, with the results in discontinued operations.

Go deeper Cash-generating units and management judgment

Assets rarely produce cash on their own. IFRS tests impairment for the smallest group of assets that generates largely independent cash inflows, called a cash-generating unit. Value in use then relies on forecast cash flows, growth rates and a discount rate chosen by management. Small changes swing the answer, which is why analysts read the sensitivity disclosures and why large, late write-offs raise reporting-quality questions.

Go deeper Revaluation model interaction

Under IFRS, an asset carried at a revalued amount first uses any decrease against the revaluation surplus in equity before it hits profit. The impairment rules in this lesson apply to the cost model, which is what the exam tests.

Memorize this

MemorizeIFRS versus US GAAP impairment of PP&E and finite-life intangibles

IFRS (International Accounting Standard 36, IAS 36)US GAAP
StepsOneTwo
Impaired whenCarrying amount > recoverable amountCarrying amount > undiscounted expected cash flows
Compared withHigher of fair value less costs to sell and value in useStep 2: fair value
LossCA − recoverable amountCA − fair value (only if step 1 fails)
Reversal (held for use)Allowed (not goodwill)Prohibited

Memory hook IFRS takes the HIGHER of two values, which gives the asset the benefit of the doubt. US GAAP first asks "will the cash even come back?" on undiscounted cash flows, and only then writes down to fair value.

Know it cold IFRS: loss = CA − max(FVLCS, VIU). US GAAP: no loss if CA ≤ undiscounted cash flows; otherwise CA − fair value.

MemorizeTesting frequency and special cases

AssetWhen tested / treated
PP&E and finite-life intangiblesWhen indicators exist, assessed each reporting date
Indefinite-life intangibles and goodwillAt least annually
Held for saleAt reclassification: write down to fair value less costs to sell; stop depreciating
Reversal, held for saleAllowed under both, up to the earlier write-down
Reversal, held for useIFRS: yes, capped; US GAAP: no

Memory hook Annual tests are for assets that are never amortized (indefinite life, goodwill). Held for sale means no more depreciation.

Know it cold IFRS reversal never takes the asset above what its carrying amount would have been without the impairment. Goodwill is never reversed.

MemorizeDerecognition

EventGain or loss
SaleProceeds − carrying amount; proceeds in investing cash flow
Abandonment or retirementLoss = carrying amount (no proceeds)
ExchangeFair value used for the new asset − carrying amount of the old
Spin-off to shareholdersNo gain or loss; shown as held for distribution / discontinued operations

Memory hook Carrying amount = cost − accumulated depreciation. Everything is measured against that number.

Know it cold Gain or loss = proceeds − carrying amount. The indirect method removes it from CFO and puts the cash in CFI.

Impairment testing: one step or two
Impairment of PP&E and finite-life intangibleschecked when there are indicators
  • IFRS: one step Memorize compare CA with recoverable amount
    • Recoverable amount higher of FVLCS and value in use
    • Loss CA − recoverable amount
  • US GAAP: two steps Memorize assets held for use
    • Step 1: recoverability CA > undiscounted cash flows?
    • Step 2: measurement loss = CA − fair value
Ways an asset leaves the balance sheet
Derecognitiondisposed of, or no future benefits expected
  • Sale Memorize gain or loss = proceeds − CA
  • Abandonment Use it loss = CA
  • Exchange Use it gain or loss = fair value received − CA given up
  • Spin-off Use it no gain or loss; distributed to shareholders
Recoverable amount (IFRS) Memorize
RA=max⁡(FVLCS, VIU)RA = \max(FVLCS,\ VIU)
Quick example

Fair value less costs to sell 540, value in use 585. The recoverable amount is the higher, 585.

IFRS impairment loss Memorize
L=CA−RAL = CA - RA
Quick example

Carrying amount 640, recoverable amount 585. Loss = 640 − 585 = 55. If CA is below RA, no loss.

On your calculator
  1. 640−585= 55
  1. 640ENTER585− 55

ENTER enter (on the HP, puts the number on the stack)

US GAAP impairment loss Memorize
L={CA−FVif CA>UCF0otherwiseL = \begin{cases} CA - FV & \text{if } CA > UCF \\ 0 & \text{otherwise} \end{cases}
Quick example

Carrying amount 640, undiscounted cash flows 615, fair value 590. 640 > 615, so impaired: loss = 640 − 590 = 50.

On your calculator
  1. 640−615= 25, positive, so not recoverable
  2. 640−590= 50
  1. 640ENTER615− 25, positive, so not recoverable
  2. 640ENTER590− 50

ENTER enter (on the HP, puts the number on the stack)

Gain or loss on sale Memorize
G=P−(C−AD)G = P - (C - AD)
Quick example

Cost 460, accumulated depreciation 330, sold for 150. Carrying amount 130; gain = 150 − 130 = 20.

On your calculator
  1. 460−330= carrying amount 130
  2. +|-+150= 20

+|- change sign

  1. 460ENTER330− carrying amount 130
  2. CHS150+ 20

ENTER enter (on the HP, puts the number on the stack) · CHS change sign

Largest IFRS reversal Use it
Reversal=min⁡(RA, CAno impairment)−CAnowReversal = \min(RA,\ CA_{\text{no impairment}}) - CA_{\text{now}}
Quick example

Carrying amount now 18,000. Without the earlier impairment it would be 26,000. Recoverable amount is 21,000. Reversal = min(21,000, 26,000) − 18,000 = 3,000.

On your calculator
  1. 21000−18000= 3000
  1. 21000ENTER18000− 3000

ENTER enter (on the HP, puts the number on the stack)

How it is asked

  1. IFRS impairment with three values

    CA 710, fair value less costs to sell 565, value in use 645. Loss?

    Recoverable = max(565, 645) = 645; loss = 65. Using the lower value (145) is the trap.

  2. US GAAP: does it even fail step 1?

    CA 430, undiscounted cash flows 455. Loss?

    430 < 455, so recoverable: no impairment. Reporting an IFRS-style loss is the trap.

  3. US GAAP loss measured against what?

    CA 650, undiscounted 615, value in use 575, fair value 535. Loss?

    Fails step 1; loss = 650 − 535 = 115. Measuring against undiscounted cash flows (35) or value in use (75) is the trap.

  4. Gain or loss on sale

    Cost 360, accumulated depreciation 255, proceeds 85.

    Carrying 105; 85 − 105 = loss of 20. Gain of 85 or loss of 275 (against cost) are the traps.

Exam traps

  • IFRS: taking the lower of fair value less costs to sell and value in use. The recoverable amount is the higher.
  • US GAAP: measuring the loss against undiscounted cash flows. Undiscounted cash flows only decide whether to write down; fair value sets the size.
  • US GAAP: reversing an impairment on an asset held for use. It is prohibited; IFRS allows it, within a cap.
  • Saying an impairment reduces operating cash flow. It is a non-cash charge.
  • Comparing sale proceeds with original cost instead of carrying amount.

Checkpoint

4 exam-style questions. About 90 seconds each.

  1. 1Under IFRS, an asset has a carrying amount of 900, fair value less costs to sell of 740, value in use of 820 and undiscounted future cash flows of 950. The impairment loss is closest to:

  2. 2Under US GAAP, an asset held for use has a carrying amount of USD 900k, undiscounted future cash flows of USD 870k, value in use of USD 820k and fair value of USD 780k. The impairment loss is closest to:

  3. 3In the year after a company recognizes a large impairment loss on a machine it still uses, compared with no impairment, the company will most likely report:

  4. 4A machine that cost EUR 800k and has accumulated depreciation of EUR 560k is sold for EUR 300k. The company reports:

Key takeaways

  • IFRS: loss = carrying amount − higher of (fair value less costs to sell, value in use).
  • US GAAP: if carrying amount > undiscounted cash flows, loss = carrying amount − fair value.
  • Reversals: IFRS yes (never goodwill, never above the no-impairment carrying amount); US GAAP no for assets held for use.
  • Impairment is non-cash: net income, assets and equity fall, CFO does not, and later depreciation is lower.
  • Gain or loss on sale = proceeds − carrying amount. Abandonment loses the full carrying amount.
Recoverable amount (IFRS) Memorize
RA=max⁡(FVLCS, VIU)RA = \max(FVLCS,\ VIU)
Quick example

Fair value less costs to sell 540, value in use 585. The recoverable amount is the higher, 585.

IFRS impairment loss Memorize
L=CA−RAL = CA - RA
Quick example

Carrying amount 640, recoverable amount 585. Loss = 640 − 585 = 55. If CA is below RA, no loss.

On your calculator
  1. 640−585= 55
  1. 640ENTER585− 55

ENTER enter (on the HP, puts the number on the stack)

US GAAP impairment loss Memorize
L={CA−FVif CA>UCF0otherwiseL = \begin{cases} CA - FV & \text{if } CA > UCF \\ 0 & \text{otherwise} \end{cases}
Quick example

Carrying amount 640, undiscounted cash flows 615, fair value 590. 640 > 615, so impaired: loss = 640 − 590 = 50.

On your calculator
  1. 640−615= 25, positive, so not recoverable
  2. 640−590= 50
  1. 640ENTER615− 25, positive, so not recoverable
  2. 640ENTER590− 50

ENTER enter (on the HP, puts the number on the stack)

Gain or loss on sale Memorize
G=P−(C−AD)G = P - (C - AD)
Quick example

Cost 460, accumulated depreciation 330, sold for 150. Carrying amount 130; gain = 150 − 130 = 20.

On your calculator
  1. 460−330= carrying amount 130
  2. +|-+150= 20

+|- change sign

  1. 460ENTER330− carrying amount 130
  2. CHS150+ 20

ENTER enter (on the HP, puts the number on the stack) · CHS change sign

Largest IFRS reversal Use it
Reversal=min⁡(RA, CAno impairment)−CAnowReversal = \min(RA,\ CA_{\text{no impairment}}) - CA_{\text{now}}
Quick example

Carrying amount now 18,000. Without the earlier impairment it would be 26,000. Recoverable amount is 21,000. Reversal = min(21,000, 26,000) − 18,000 = 3,000.

On your calculator
  1. 21000−18000= 3000
  1. 21000ENTER18000− 3000

ENTER enter (on the HP, puts the number on the stack)

All Financial Statement Analysis formulas, every lesson

Practice exam-style questions on Analysis of Long-Term Assets

Questions about this lesson?

Where this comes back

Questions candidates ask

What is the difference between IFRS and US GAAP impairment tests?

IFRS compares the carrying amount with the recoverable amount, the higher of fair value less costs to sell and value in use, and writes down the excess. US GAAP first tests whether undiscounted cash flows cover the carrying amount and only if not writes down to fair value.

Can impairment losses be reversed?

Under IFRS, yes for assets other than goodwill, up to what the carrying amount would have been without the impairment. Under US GAAP, no for assets held for use. Assets held for sale can be written back up to the earlier loss under both.

How do you calculate a gain or loss on sale of an asset?

Subtract the carrying amount (cost minus accumulated depreciation) from the proceeds. Cost 120 and accumulated depreciation 75 give a carrying amount of 45. A sale at 38 is a loss of 7.

Does impairment affect cash flow?

No. It is a non-cash charge that lowers net income, assets and equity. Under the indirect method it is added back, so operating cash flow is unchanged (before any tax effect).

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  1. Purchased, internally developed and acquired intangibles
  2. Impairment and derecognition of PP&E and intangibles
  3. PP&E disclosures, fixed asset turnover and asset age

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