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Lesson 4 of 6 6–9% of the exam

You are reading the 2026 curriculum (exams up to November 2026). Sitting in February 2027 or later? Go to the 2027 Quantitative Methods guide.

Downside deviation and coefficient of variation

Target downside deviation measures spread only below a target return B: square the shortfalls, add them, divide by n − 1 (all observations), take the root. The coefficient of variation divides the standard deviation by the mean, giving risk per unit of return, so lower is better.

6 min cram, 24 min full read. Based on the 2026 CFA® Program Level I curriculum, Quantitative Methods, Learning Module 3. This is the 2026 version of the lesson. Sitting in February 2027 or later? Read the updated 2027 version.

Tailor this to you: take the self-assessment

Before this: Range, mean absolute deviation, variance and standard deviation

On the exam

  • Calculate, interpret, and evaluate measures of dispersion to address an investment problem

Calculate and interpret target downside deviation and the coefficient of variation. Expect the n − 1 divisor to be tested, a change of target, and a comparison of two funds by CV.

How deeply to learn each part
Know the idea
Understand it in general. It frames other topics, but you will not calculate with it.
Use it
Understand it well enough to solve a question with it. Recognize when it applies.
Memorize
Learn it by heart. The exam will not give it to you.

You know this one. The full lesson is folded away. The takeaways, formulas and checkpoint below are your quick refresher, and the checkpoint is a fair test of whether you still do.

You tested strong here. The full lesson is folded away. The takeaways, formulas and checkpoint below are your quick refresher, and the checkpoint is a fair test of whether you still know it.

Cram mode: the one-screen version of this lesson. Switch to Full for the explanations, worked examples and interactives.

How do you measure only the bad volatility?

The standard deviation counts a surprise gain exactly like a surprise loss. Most investors do not see it that way. Downside risk is the risk of returns falling below a level you care about, such as a minimum return needed to meet a liability.

The target downside deviation , also called the target semideviation , measures the spread of returns below a target B. Only observations below B enter the sum, but the divisor still counts every observation.

Target downside deviation Memorize
starget=∑Xi<B(Xi−B)2n−1s_{target} = \sqrt{\frac{\sum_{X_i < B} (X_i - B)^2}{n - 1}}
Rearrange itTarget downside deviation: solve for the deviation, the shortfall sum or n
The question asks for
Of 8 returns, those below the target have squared shortfalls that add up to 19.21 (in %²). The target downside deviation is closest to:

√(19.21 ÷ 7) = √2.7443 = 1.66%

Target downside deviation1.66%

On your calculator
  1. 19.21÷(8−1)=√xn counts every observation, not only those below the target

√x square root

  1. 19.21ENTER8ENTER1−÷g√xn counts every observation, not only those below the target

ENTER enter (on the HP, puts the number on the stack) · g blue shift key · √x square root

InteractiveOnly the months that hurt: target downside deviation

Try this 0 of 2

  • Set the target to 0% and check the downside deviation is 1.04%
  • Raise the target to 3% or more and watch the downside deviation
−4%−2%0%2%4%6%1.8Jan−2.4Feb11.563.1Mar0.5Apr0.25−1.2May4.842.6Jun4.0Jul−0.6Aug2.56B = 1.0%

Drag the dashed target line, or focus it and use the arrow keys. Orange months are below the target; the number under each is its squared shortfall.

Months below target4 of 8
Target downside deviation1.66%
Standard deviation (all months)2.26%
Trap: ÷ 42.19%

4 months fall below 1.0%. Their squared shortfalls add to 19.21; divided by n − 1 = 7, the root is 1.66%, below the full standard deviation of 2.26%.

Show working

Shortfalls below B = 1.0%: Feb (−2.4 − 1.0)² = 11.56; Apr (0.5 − 1.0)² = 0.25; May (−1.2 − 1.0)² = 4.84; Aug (−0.6 − 1.0)² = 2.56.

Months at or above the target count as zero; they still count in n.

Target downside deviation = √(19.21 ÷ (8 − 1)) = √2.7443 = 1.66%.

Trap: dividing by the 4 months below target gives √(19.21 ÷ 4) = 2.19%.

Full sample standard deviation (mean 0.98%, all 8 months, ÷ 7) = 2.26%.

Downside deviation on your calculator
  1. 3.4x²+0.5x²+2.2x²+1.6x²=19.21, sum of squared shortfalls
  2. ÷7=2.7443
  3. √x1.66%

x² square · √x square root

  1. 3.4ENTER×0.5ENTER×+2.2ENTER×+1.6ENTER×+19.21, sum of squared shortfalls
  2. 7÷2.7443
  3. g√x1.66%

ENTER enter (on the HP, puts the number on the stack) · g blue shift key · √x square root

Downside deviation only counts the months that hurt.

Drag the target line and watch the bars that turn orange. More bars fall short as the target rises, and each shortfall grows.

With a target near the average, the downside deviation is usually lower than the standard deviation, because only part of the data counts. Raise the target far enough and it can exceed it.

What is the coefficient of variation?

Standard deviations are hard to compare across assets with very different average returns. A 10% standard deviation is mild for an asset that earns 20% and wild for one that earns 2%. The coefficient of variation (CV) fixes this by expressing the standard deviation relative to the mean. It is a measure of relative dispersion .

Coefficient of variation Memorize
CV=sXˉCV = \frac{s}{\bar{X}}
Rearrange itCoefficient of variation: solve for CV, standard deviation or mean
The question asks for
A fund has a mean return of 9.00% and a standard deviation of 14.00%. Its coefficient of variation is closest to:

14.00% ÷ 9.00% = 1.5556

Coefficient of variation, CV1.5556

On your calculator
  1. 14÷9=both in percent, so the units cancel
  1. 14ENTER9÷both in percent, so the units cancel

ENTER enter (on the HP, puts the number on the stack)

Three ways to put a number on risk
Dispersion of returnsfrom the previous lesson to this one
  • Standard deviation Memorize all spread around the mean, up and down alike
  • Target downside deviation Memorize only shortfalls below a target B
    • Divisor n − 1, with n counting every observation
    • Higher target more observations count, bigger shortfalls, larger result
  • Coefficient of variation Memorize standard deviation ÷ mean, a relative measure
    • Reading it risk per unit of return, lower is better
    • Caution only meaningful with a positive mean not near zero

Exam tip CV: lower is better. If a mean is zero or negative, do not use the CV at all.

Go deeper From downside deviation to the Sortino ratio

The Sortino ratio is the Sharpe ratio’s cousin: it divides the excess return over a target by the target downside deviation instead of by the standard deviation. It rewards a manager whose volatility comes mostly from gains. It appears in the portfolio management performance-measures material, and this lesson supplies its denominator.

Go deeper Why investors with a minimum return watch the downside

A pension fund that must earn at least 3% a year to pay benefits is not troubled by returns above 3%. Its pain comes from the months and years below that line. A manager with big upside swings and few shortfalls can have a high standard deviation but a low downside deviation, and the second number is the one that matches the fund’s problem.

Memorize this

MemorizeDownside deviation and CV

MeasureFormulaBetter when
Target downside deviation√[ Σ(X − B)² for X < B ÷ (n − 1) ]lower
Coefficient of variations ÷ X̄lower

Memory hook Downside deviation: keep only the bad months, square the misses, but divide by all n − 1, not by how many were bad.

Know it cold Raise the target B and the downside deviation can only rise. CV is unit-free, so it compares assets with different returns.

Three ways to put a number on risk
Dispersion of returnsfrom the previous lesson to this one
  • Standard deviation Memorize all spread around the mean, up and down alike
  • Target downside deviation Memorize only shortfalls below a target B
    • Divisor n − 1, with n counting every observation
    • Higher target more observations count, bigger shortfalls, larger result
  • Coefficient of variation Memorize standard deviation ÷ mean, a relative measure
    • Reading it risk per unit of return, lower is better
    • Caution only meaningful with a positive mean not near zero
Target downside deviation Memorize
starget=∑Xi<B(Xi−B)2n−1s_{target} = \sqrt{\frac{\sum_{X_i < B} (X_i - B)^2}{n - 1}}
Quick example

Returns 3%, −1%, 2%, −4%, 5% and a 0% target. Shortfalls −1 and −4: (1 + 16) ÷ (5 − 1) = 4.25, and √4.25 = 2.06%.

On your calculator
  1. 1x²+4x²= 17
  2. ÷4=√x 2.06

x² square · √x square root

  1. 1ENTER×4ENTER×+ 17
  2. 4÷g√x 2.06

ENTER enter (on the HP, puts the number on the stack) · g blue shift key · √x square root

Coefficient of variation Memorize
CV=sXˉCV = \frac{s}{\bar{X}}
Quick example

Mean 10%, standard deviation 12%. CV = 12 ÷ 10 = 1.20 units of risk per unit of return.

On your calculator
  1. 12÷10= 1.2
  1. 12ENTER10÷ 1.2

ENTER enter (on the HP, puts the number on the stack)

How it is asked

  1. Target downside deviation from a short list

    Returns 3%, −1%, 2%, −4%, 5%, target 0%. Target downside deviation?

    (1 + 16) ÷ 4 = 4.25, √ = 2.06%. Traps: 2.92% (÷ 2 below-target values), 3.54% (full standard deviation).

  2. Which fund has less risk per unit of return?

    X: mean 6%, s 9%. Y: mean 10%, s 12%.

    CV X = 1.50, CV Y = 1.20. Y wins. Trap: picking the lower standard deviation.

  3. Effect of raising the target

    The target return is raised. What happens to downside deviation?

    It increases (shortfalls get bigger, more observations count).

Exam traps

  • Dividing by the number of below-target observations instead of n − 1 (n counts every observation).
  • Including above-target observations in the sum.
  • Reading a higher CV as better. A lower CV means less risk per unit of return.
  • Computing the CV with a mean near zero or negative, which makes it meaningless.

Checkpoint

4 exam-style questions. About 90 seconds each.

  1. 1Five annual returns are 3%, −1%, 2%, −4% and 5%. With a target of 0%, the target downside deviation is closest to:

  2. 2Fund X has a mean return of 6% and a standard deviation of 9%. Fund Y has a mean of 10% and a standard deviation of 12%. Which has less risk per unit of return?

  3. 3If the target return used in a downside deviation is raised, the downside deviation most likely:

  4. 4Ten monthly returns include three that fall below the target, with squared shortfalls that add up to 12.6 (%²). The target downside deviation is closest to:

Key takeaways

  • Target downside deviation: shortfalls below B only, divided by n − 1.
  • CV = s ÷ mean. Lower means less risk per unit of return.
  • A higher target means a larger downside deviation.
  • CV has no units, so it compares funds of different size and return.
Target downside deviation Memorize
starget=∑Xi<B(Xi−B)2n−1s_{target} = \sqrt{\frac{\sum_{X_i < B} (X_i - B)^2}{n - 1}}
Quick example

Returns 3%, −1%, 2%, −4%, 5% and a 0% target. Shortfalls −1 and −4: (1 + 16) ÷ (5 − 1) = 4.25, and √4.25 = 2.06%.

On your calculator
  1. 1x²+4x²= 17
  2. ÷4=√x 2.06

x² square · √x square root

  1. 1ENTER×4ENTER×+ 17
  2. 4÷g√x 2.06

ENTER enter (on the HP, puts the number on the stack) · g blue shift key · √x square root

Coefficient of variation Memorize
CV=sXˉCV = \frac{s}{\bar{X}}
Quick example

Mean 10%, standard deviation 12%. CV = 12 ÷ 10 = 1.20 units of risk per unit of return.

On your calculator
  1. 12÷10= 1.2
  1. 12ENTER10÷ 1.2

ENTER enter (on the HP, puts the number on the stack)

Questions about this lesson?

Where this comes back

Questions candidates ask

What is target semideviation?

Another name for target downside deviation. It measures the spread of returns below a chosen target B and ignores everything above it. Square each shortfall (X − B for X below B), add them, divide by n − 1 where n counts all observations, and take the square root.

How do you calculate the coefficient of variation?

Divide the standard deviation by the mean: CV = s ÷ X̄. A fund with a 9% standard deviation and a 7% mean has a CV of 1.29. It expresses risk per unit of return and has no units, which is why it can compare assets with different average returns.

Is a higher coefficient of variation better?

No. A higher CV means more risk for each unit of return, so a lower CV is better. It only makes sense when the mean is positive and not close to zero, because a tiny mean inflates the ratio.

Spotted an error? Tell us and we will fix it.

  1. Mean, median, mode and what outliers do to them
  2. Quartiles, percentiles and box plots
  3. Range, mean absolute deviation, variance and standard deviation
  4. Downside deviation and coefficient of variation
  5. Skewness and kurtosis
  6. Covariance and correlation

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